UP Police Sub Inspector Previous Year Question Paper 2026

Question 1

निम्नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए -

1. a. जब भी आप आओ, मुझसे मिलो।
2. b. खाली बैठने की बजाय आप काम कीजिए।
3. c. उन्होंने भी मिठाई खाई है।
4. d. मुझे अनेक लोगों ने सलाह दी।

Correct answer: A

Explanation: मध्यमपुरुष के आदरसूचक सर्वनाम 'आप' के साथ क्रिया का सम्मानसूचक रूप ('आएं') प्रयुक्त होना चाहिए, न कि सामान्य रूप 'आओ'। शुद्ध वाक्य होगा 'जब भी आप आएं, मुझसे मिलें।'

Question 2

'हम चलते हैं उन्हें भी बुला लाओ' इस वाक्य में कौन-सा सर्वनाम है?

1. a. पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम
2. b. प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम
3. c. अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
4. d. संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 'हम' और 'उन्हें' प्रथम एवं अन्य पुरुष के लिए प्रयुक्त सर्वनाम हैं, अतः ये पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम की श्रेणी में आते हैं।

Question 3

'अवसर के अनुसार बदल जाने वाला' इस वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए -

1. a. पंडित
2. b. अवसरवादी
3. c. निष्कपट
4. d. सदाचारी

Correct answer: B

Explanation: जो व्यक्ति परिस्थिति के अनुसार अपना रुख या व्यवहार बदल लेता है, उसे 'अवसरवादी' कहा जाता है।

Question 4

'कंपकंपी छूटना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है -

1. a. पेट में दर्द होना
2. b. अपना हाल बताना
3. c. डर से शरीर काँपना
4. d. आँसू आना

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'कंपकंपी छूटना' का अर्थ है भय के कारण शरीर का थर-थर काँपने लगना।

Question 5

जहाँ एक वाक्य समाप्त करना है प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह को छोड़कर, वहाँ किस चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है?

1. a. अर्ध विराम
2. b. उद्धरण चिह्न
3. c. पूर्ण विराम
4. d. व्याख्या चिन्ह

Correct answer: C

Explanation: साधारण कथन वाक्य के अंत में 'पूर्ण विराम' (।) का प्रयोग होता है; प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों के लिए ही प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न (?) प्रयुक्त होता है।

Question 6

'घंटी बजी है, कोई आया है' इस वाक्य में कौन-सा सर्वनाम है?

1. a. अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
2. b. प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम
3. c. निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
4. d. संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 'कोई' शब्द किसी अनिश्चित, अनिर्दिष्ट व्यक्ति की ओर संकेत करता है, इसलिए यह अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम है।

Question 7

नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से कौन-सा वाक्य समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय दर्शाता है?

1. a. सब्जी अच्छी बनी है।
2. b. मीठा आम शालिनी को पसंद है।
3. c. अभी तुम रुक जाओ।
4. d. बेईमानी की थी इसीलिए चुनाव हार गया।

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 'इसीलिए' एक समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय (योजक शब्द) है जो दो उपवाक्यों (कारण और परिणाम) को आपस में जोड़ता है।

Question 8

भगवती चरण वर्मा द्वारा लिखित एक चर्चित उपन्यास का नाम बताएँ -

1. a. पलाश के फूल
2. b. चित्रलेखा
3. c. अनामिका
4. d. गोदान

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 'चित्रलेखा' भगवती चरण वर्मा का प्रसिद्ध उपन्यास है, जबकि 'गोदान' प्रेमचंद की रचना है।

Question 9

'काला अक्षर भैंस बराबर' का अर्थ निम्न में से क्या है?

1. a. दोनों तरफ संकट
2. b. व्यर्थ समय गँवाना
3. c. बिलकुल अनपढ़
4. d. इधर-उधर की बात करना

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'काला अक्षर भैंस बराबर' का प्रयोग उस व्यक्ति के लिए होता है जो लिखे हुए अक्षरों को भी नहीं पहचानता, अर्थात् पूर्णतः अनपढ़ है।

Question 10

"ओछे की प्रीति, बालू की भीति" अर्थ की बोधक सही लोकोक्ति है -

1. a. बुरे के साथ रहने से बुराई ही मिलती है।
2. b. आपस की फूट से सर्वनाश होना।
3. c. दुष्ट व्यक्ति का प्रेम अस्थिर होता है।
4. d. बुरी संगत का प्रभाव अवश्य पड़ता है।

Correct answer: C

Explanation: जिस तरह बालू से बनी दीवार शीघ्र ढह जाती है, उसी तरह किसी नीच या स्वार्थी व्यक्ति की मित्रता/प्रेम भी टिकाऊ नहीं होता।

Question 11

कंकन किंकिन नुपुर धुनि सुनि, कहत लखन सन राम हृदय गुनि। इस काव्य पंक्ति में कौन-सा अलंकार है?

1. a. अनुप्रास
2. b. रूपक
3. c. यमक
4. d. श्लेष

Correct answer: A

Explanation: इस पंक्ति में 'क' और 'न' वर्णों की बार-बार आवृत्ति हुई है, जो अनुप्रास अलंकार की पहचान है।

Question 12

प्रसिद्ध उपन्यास 'अनारो' के उपन्यासकार का नाम बताएँ -

1. a. उषा प्रियंवदा
2. b. ममता कालिया
3. c. मंजुल भगत
4. d. मन्नू भंडारी

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'अनारो' उपन्यास की रचनाकार मंजुल भगत हैं।

Question 13

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द तद्भव है?

1. a. नयन
2. b. सत्य
3. c. रक्षा
4. d. मौत

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 'मौत' संस्कृत शब्द 'मृत्यु' से विकसित तद्भव शब्द है; शेष तीनों शब्द (नयन, सत्य, रक्षा) संस्कृत के तत्सम रूप में ज्यों के त्यों प्रयुक्त होते हैं।

Question 14

'इच्छा' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है -

1. a. समय
2. b. आदेश
3. c. लालसा
4. d. कंगाल

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'लालसा' का अर्थ भी प्रबल इच्छा या चाह है, इसलिए यह 'इच्छा' का पर्यायवाची है।

Question 15

'यदि वर्षा अच्छी होती तो फसल अच्छी होती' इस वाक्य का काल पहचानिए।

1. a. संभाव्य भूतकाल
2. b. अपूर्ण भूतकाल
3. c. हेतु-हेतुमद् भूतकाल
4. d. पूर्ण भूतकाल

Correct answer: C

Explanation: जब एक क्रिया दूसरी क्रिया के घटित होने पर निर्भर हो ('यदि...तो' की संरचना में) और दोनों भूतकाल में अपूर्ण/असंभावित रहें, तो वह हेतु-हेतुमद् भूतकाल कहलाता है।

Question 16

'दादी जी शाम को मंदिर जाती हैं' इस वाक्य में कौन-सा अव्यय है?

1. a. रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
2. b. कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
3. c. स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
4. d. परिणामवाचक क्रियाविशेषण

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 'शाम को' क्रिया के होने का समय बता रहा है, इसलिए यह कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण है।

Question 17

'मन चंगा तो कठौती में गंगा' इस लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ क्या है?

1. a. एक काम से दोहरा लाभ।
2. b. सच्चे को डरने की आवश्यकता नहीं।
3. c. मन शुद्ध है तो सब ठीक है।
4. d. अच्छे काम का परिणाम अच्छा होता है।

Correct answer: C

Explanation: इस लोकोक्ति का भाव है कि यदि मनुष्य का मन और नीयत शुद्ध है, तो पूजा-स्थल या साधन कैसे भी हों, फल उतना ही शुभ मिलता है — अर्थात् बाह्य आडंबर से अधिक महत्वपूर्ण मन की शुद्धता है।

Question 18

'न्यून' शब्द में किन वर्णों की संधि हुई है?

1. a. ई + अ
2. b. इ + ऊ
3. c. इ + उ
4. d. इ + ए

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 'नि + ऊन' में 'इ' और 'ऊ' की संधि होने पर यण् संधि नियम से 'इ+ऊ = य्+ऊ' अर्थात् 'न्यून' शब्द बनता है।

Question 19

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्य शुद्ध है?

1. a. वह दिनों-रात काम करता है।
2. b. क्या आप भोजन किये है?
3. c. उसने प्राणों की बाज़ी लगा दी।
4. d. मैं नया पोशाक पहनूँगा।

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'उसने प्राणों की बाज़ी लगा दी' व्याकरणिक रूप से शुद्ध वाक्य है; शेष विकल्पों में क्रमशः पुनरुक्ति (दिनों-रात की जगह दिन-रात), क्रिया-रूप (किये है की जगह किया है) और लिंग-दोष (नया की जगह नई पोशाक) की त्रुटियाँ हैं।

Question 20

'धूप के धान' (काव्य) के रचयिता हैं -

1. a. भवानी प्र. मिश्र
2. b. गजानन माधव 'मुक्तिबोध'
3. c. गिरिजाकुमार माथुर
4. d. भारतेन्दु हरिश्चन्द्र

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'धूप के धान' कवि गिरिजाकुमार माथुर की काव्य-रचना है।

Question 21

वर्ष 2009 में "हवा में हस्ताक्षर" (कविता संग्रह) के लिए किस साहित्यकार को साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार दिया गया?

1. a. मंगलेश डबराल
2. b. कैलाश वाजपेयी
3. c. गिरिराज किशोर
4. d. विष्णु प्रभाकर

Correct answer: B

Explanation: कैलाश वाजपेयी को उनके कविता संग्रह 'हवा में हस्ताक्षर' के लिए वर्ष 2009 का साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार प्रदान किया गया था।

Question 22

'सहन करने की शक्ति वाला' इस वाक्यांश के लिए एक उपयुक्त शब्द का चयन कीजिए -

1. a. पाषाण हृदय
2. b. वीतरागी
3. c. कर्मठ
4. d. सहिष्णु

Correct answer: D

Explanation: जो व्यक्ति कष्ट या विपरीत परिस्थितियों को सहन करने की क्षमता रखता है, उसे 'सहिष्णु' कहा जाता है।

Question 23

निम्नलिखित में से 'तत्सम' शब्द पहचानिए -

1. a. अँधा
2. b. कबूतर
3. c. श्वास
4. d. आसरा

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'श्वास' संस्कृत का शब्द है जो हिंदी में बिना किसी परिवर्तन के प्रयुक्त होता है, इसलिए यह तत्सम शब्द है; शेष तीनों तद्भव या देशज शब्द हैं।

Question 24

'वह थककर सो गया' इस वाक्य में 'थककर' शब्द को पहचानिए -

1. a. वाच्य
2. b. कर्ता
3. c. क्रिया विशेषण
4. d. संज्ञा

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'थककर' मुख्य क्रिया 'सो गया' की विधि/अवस्था बता रहा है, इसलिए यह क्रिया विशेषण (पूर्वकालिक क्रिया के रूप में क्रियाविशेषण जैसा प्रयोग) है।

Question 25

यदि तुम गवाही दे दो, तो काम बन जाए। इस वाक्य में कौन-सा वाच्य है?

1. a. आज्ञार्थक
2. b. इच्छावाचक
3. c. संकेतवाचक
4. d. संदेहवाचक

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'यदि...तो' की संरचना किसी शर्त या संकेत पर आधारित परिणाम को दर्शाती है, अतः यह संकेतवाचक वाक्य है।

Question 26

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द तत्सम है?

1. a. पत्ता
2. b. ग्यारह
3. c. धुरि
4. d. एकादश

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 'एकादश' संस्कृत का मूल शब्द है और हिंदी में यथावत् प्रयुक्त होता है, इसलिए यह तत्सम शब्द है; 'ग्यारह' इसी का तद्भव रूप है।

Question 27

'बाज़ार से तीन किलो घी लेते आना' में 'तीन किलो' कौन-सा विशेषण है?

1. a. संबंधवाचक
2. b. स्थानवाचक
3. c. भाववाचक
4. d. परिमाणवाचक

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 'तीन किलो' घी की मापी जाने योग्य मात्रा बता रहा है, इसलिए यह परिमाणवाचक विशेषण है।

Question 28

निम्न विकल्पों में से यण् संधि पहचानिए -

1. a. पौ + अन
2. b. यथा + एव
3. c. सु + अल्प
4. d. वार्ता + आलाप

Correct answer: C

Explanation: यण् संधि में 'इ/ई, उ/ऊ, ऋ' के बाद असमान स्वर आने पर वे क्रमशः य्, व्, र् में बदल जाते हैं। 'सु + अल्प' में 'उ' के बाद 'अ' आने से 'सु' का 'उ' 'व्' में बदलकर 'स्वल्प' बनता है।

Question 29

निम्नलिखित में किस वाक्य में विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है?

1. a. उसे बहुत दूर नहीं जाना है।
2. b. राम और लक्ष्मण वन को चल दिए।
3. c. वाह वाह, बहुत अच्छा काम किया है राधा ने।
4. d. अभी तुम रुक जाओ।

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'वाह वाह' हर्ष/प्रशंसा का भाव व्यक्त करने वाला विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय है।

Question 30

'अनिर्वचनीय' शब्द के लिए उपयुक्त वाक्यांश पहचानिए -

1. a. जिसके समान कोई दूसरा न हो
2. b. अवसर के अनुसार बदलने वाला
3. c. जिसका वर्णन या विवेचन न किया जा सके
4. d. किसी वस्तु का बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर वर्णन करना

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 'अनिर्वचनीय' का अर्थ है जिसे शब्दों में व्यक्त या वर्णित न किया जा सके।

Question 31

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए -

1. a. तुमने किया है यह सारा काम।
2. b. तुमने करा है यह सारा काम।
3. c. यह सारा काम तुमने करा है।
4. d. यह सारा काम तुमने किया है।

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 'किया है' 'करना' क्रिया का शुद्ध भूतकालिक रूप है; 'करा है' अशुद्ध प्रयोग है (जो कारक-रूप 'कराना' से भ्रमित करता है), और शेष विकल्पों में शब्द-क्रम स्वाभाविक नहीं है।

Question 32

निम्नलिखित में से एक अनेकार्थी शब्द है -

1. a. अर्क
2. b. छात्र
3. c. कृति
4. d. निपुण

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 'अर्क' के अनेक अर्थ हैं — सूर्य, आक (एक पौधा) और किसी वस्तु का सार/निचोड़; इसलिए यह अनेकार्थी शब्द है।

Question 33

2013 में 'ज्ञानपीठ' पुरस्कार किसे प्राप्त हुआ?

1. a. प्रतिभा रे
2. b. शंख घोष
3. c. केदारनाथ सिंह
4. d. रघुवीर चौधरी

Correct answer: C

Explanation: हिंदी कवि केदारनाथ सिंह को वर्ष 2013 का ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार प्रदान किया गया था।

Question 34

'तरनि तनूजा तट तमाल तरुवरबहु छाए', इन पंक्तियों में कौन-सा अलंकार है?

1. a. बहुव्रीहि
2. b. रूपक
3. c. यमक
4. d. अनुप्रास

Correct answer: D

Explanation: इस पंक्ति में 'त' वर्ण की बार-बार आवृत्ति हुई है, जो अनुप्रास अलंकार की विशेषता है।

Question 35

दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द दीजिए- 'जिसे कोई विकार ना हो'

1. a. कंजूस
2. b. स्वार्थी
3. c. परघाती
4. d. निर्विकार

Correct answer: D

Explanation: जिसमें कोई विकार, दोष या परिवर्तन न हो, उसे 'निर्विकार' कहा जाता है।

Question 36

गद्यांश: मनुष्य जन्म से ही अहंकार का इतना विशाल बोझ लेकर आता है कि उसकी दृष्टि सदैव दूसरों की बुराइयों पर ही टिकती है। आत्मनिरीक्षण को भुलाकर साधारण मानव केवल परछिद्रान्वेषण में ही अपना जीवन बिताना चाहता है। इसके मूल में उसकी ईर्ष्या-दाहक दुष्प्रवृत्ति कार्यशील रहती है। दूसरे की सहज उन्नति को वह अपनी ईर्ष्या के वशीभूत होकर पचा नहीं पाता और उसके गुणों को अनदेखा करके केवल दोषों और दुर्गुणों को ही प्रचारित करने लगता है। इस प्रक्रिया में वह इस तथ्य को भी विस्मृत कर बैठता है कि ईर्ष्या का दाहक स्वरूप स्वयं उसके समय, स्वास्थ्य और सद्वृत्तियों के लिए कितना विनाशकारी सिद्ध हो रहा है। परनिंदा को शास्त्रों में पाप बताया गया है। वास्तव में मनुष्य अपनी न्यूनताओं, अपने दुर्गुणों की ओर दृष्टि उठाकर देखना भी नहीं चाहता क्योंकि उसे पहचानने की यह प्रक्रिया उसके लिए बहुत कष्टकारी है। ऊपर दिए गए गद्यांश के अनुसार अहंकार के कारण मनुष्य पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?

1. a. उसकी बात सभी मानते हैं।
2. b. वह दूसरों के दोष देखता रहता है।
3. c. वह अपने गुणों का बखान करता है।
4. d. वह अपने को सर्वश्रेष्ठ समझता है।

Correct answer: B

Explanation: गद्यांश के अनुसार अहंकारी व्यक्ति की दृष्टि सदैव दूसरों की बुराइयों/दोषों पर ही टिकी रहती है और वह परछिद्रान्वेषण में लगा रहता है।

Question 37

गद्यांश: मनुष्य जन्म से ही अहंकार का इतना विशाल बोझ लेकर आता है कि उसकी दृष्टि सदैव दूसरों की बुराइयों पर ही टिकती है। आत्मनिरीक्षण को भुलाकर साधारण मानव केवल परछिद्रान्वेषण में ही अपना जीवन बिताना चाहता है। इसके मूल में उसकी ईर्ष्या-दाहक दुष्प्रवृत्ति कार्यशील रहती है। दूसरे की सहज उन्नति को वह अपनी ईर्ष्या के वशीभूत होकर पचा नहीं पाता और उसके गुणों को अनदेखा करके केवल दोषों और दुर्गुणों को ही प्रचारित करने लगता है। इस प्रक्रिया में वह इस तथ्य को भी विस्मृत कर बैठता है कि ईर्ष्या का दाहक स्वरूप स्वयं उसके समय, स्वास्थ्य और सद्वृत्तियों के लिए कितना विनाशकारी सिद्ध हो रहा है। परनिंदा को शास्त्रों में पाप बताया गया है। वास्तव में मनुष्य अपनी न्यूनताओं, अपने दुर्गुणों की ओर दृष्टि उठाकर देखना भी नहीं चाहता क्योंकि उसे पहचानने की यह प्रक्रिया उसके लिए बहुत कष्टकारी है। गद्यांश के अनुसार अहंकार दूर करने के लिए जरूरी है -

1. a. निरंतर चिंतन-मनन करना
2. b. परछिद्रान्वेषण से बचना
3. c. आत्मनिरीक्षण करना
4. d. मन को शांत रखना

Correct answer: C

Explanation: गद्यांश में स्पष्ट कहा गया है कि सामान्य मानव 'आत्मनिरीक्षण को भुलाकर' परछिद्रान्वेषण में लगा रहता है — अतः अहंकार दूर करने के लिए आत्मनिरीक्षण आवश्यक है।

Question 38

गद्यांश: मनुष्य जन्म से ही अहंकार का इतना विशाल बोझ लेकर आता है कि उसकी दृष्टि सदैव दूसरों की बुराइयों पर ही टिकती है। आत्मनिरीक्षण को भुलाकर साधारण मानव केवल परछिद्रान्वेषण में ही अपना जीवन बिताना चाहता है। इसके मूल में उसकी ईर्ष्या-दाहक दुष्प्रवृत्ति कार्यशील रहती है। दूसरे की सहज उन्नति को वह अपनी ईर्ष्या के वशीभूत होकर पचा नहीं पाता और उसके गुणों को अनदेखा करके केवल दोषों और दुर्गुणों को ही प्रचारित करने लगता है। इस प्रक्रिया में वह इस तथ्य को भी विस्मृत कर बैठता है कि ईर्ष्या का दाहक स्वरूप स्वयं उसके समय, स्वास्थ्य और सद्वृत्तियों के लिए कितना विनाशकारी सिद्ध हो रहा है। परनिंदा को शास्त्रों में पाप बताया गया है। वास्तव में मनुष्य अपनी न्यूनताओं, अपने दुर्गुणों की ओर दृष्टि उठाकर देखना भी नहीं चाहता क्योंकि उसे पहचानने की यह प्रक्रिया उसके लिए बहुत कष्टकारी है। ऊपर दिए गए गद्यांश में किस-किस उपसर्ग से बने शब्दों की अधिकता है?

1. a. अहं
2. b. पर
3. c. दुर्
4. d. सद्

Correct answer: B

Explanation: गद्यांश में 'पर' उपसर्ग से बने कई शब्द बार-बार आए हैं — जैसे परछिद्रान्वेषण, परनिंदा — इसलिए 'पर' उपसर्ग की अधिकता है।

Question 39

गद्यांश: मनुष्य जन्म से ही अहंकार का इतना विशाल बोझ लेकर आता है कि उसकी दृष्टि सदैव दूसरों की बुराइयों पर ही टिकती है। आत्मनिरीक्षण को भुलाकर साधारण मानव केवल परछिद्रान्वेषण में ही अपना जीवन बिताना चाहता है। इसके मूल में उसकी ईर्ष्या-दाहक दुष्प्रवृत्ति कार्यशील रहती है। दूसरे की सहज उन्नति को वह अपनी ईर्ष्या के वशीभूत होकर पचा नहीं पाता और उसके गुणों को अनदेखा करके केवल दोषों और दुर्गुणों को ही प्रचारित करने लगता है। इस प्रक्रिया में वह इस तथ्य को भी विस्मृत कर बैठता है कि ईर्ष्या का दाहक स्वरूप स्वयं उसके समय, स्वास्थ्य और सद्वृत्तियों के लिए कितना विनाशकारी सिद्ध हो रहा है। परनिंदा को शास्त्रों में पाप बताया गया है। वास्तव में मनुष्य अपनी न्यूनताओं, अपने दुर्गुणों की ओर दृष्टि उठाकर देखना भी नहीं चाहता क्योंकि उसे पहचानने की यह प्रक्रिया उसके लिए बहुत कष्टकारी है। गद्यांश के अनुसार दूसरों की उन्नति को मनुष्य क्यों नहीं देखना चाहता?

1. a. अपने बड़प्पन के कारण
2. b. स्वयं धनवान होने के कारण
3. c. स्वयं गुणी होने के कारण
4. d. ईर्ष्या भाव के कारण

Correct answer: D

Explanation: गद्यांश के अनुसार व्यक्ति अपनी ईर्ष्या के वशीभूत होकर दूसरे की सहज उन्नति को पचा नहीं पाता।

Question 40

गद्यांश: मनुष्य जन्म से ही अहंकार का इतना विशाल बोझ लेकर आता है कि उसकी दृष्टि सदैव दूसरों की बुराइयों पर ही टिकती है। आत्मनिरीक्षण को भुलाकर साधारण मानव केवल परछिद्रान्वेषण में ही अपना जीवन बिताना चाहता है। इसके मूल में उसकी ईर्ष्या-दाहक दुष्प्रवृत्ति कार्यशील रहती है। दूसरे की सहज उन्नति को वह अपनी ईर्ष्या के वशीभूत होकर पचा नहीं पाता और उसके गुणों को अनदेखा करके केवल दोषों और दुर्गुणों को ही प्रचारित करने लगता है। इस प्रक्रिया में वह इस तथ्य को भी विस्मृत कर बैठता है कि ईर्ष्या का दाहक स्वरूप स्वयं उसके समय, स्वास्थ्य और सद्वृत्तियों के लिए कितना विनाशकारी सिद्ध हो रहा है। परनिंदा को शास्त्रों में पाप बताया गया है। वास्तव में मनुष्य अपनी न्यूनताओं, अपने दुर्गुणों की ओर दृष्टि उठाकर देखना भी नहीं चाहता क्योंकि उसे पहचानने की यह प्रक्रिया उसके लिए बहुत कष्टकारी है। गद्यांश के अनुसार स्वास्थ्य और सदाचार नष्ट हो जाते हैं -

1. a. अनैतिक कार्य करने पर
2. b. स्वास्थ्य के नियमों का पालन न करने पर
3. c. क्रोध के वश में होने पर
4. d. ईर्ष्या के वश में होने पर

Correct answer: D

Explanation: गद्यांश के अनुसार ईर्ष्या का दाहक स्वरूप व्यक्ति के समय, स्वास्थ्य और सद्वृत्तियों (सदाचार) के लिए विनाशकारी सिद्ध होता है।

Question 41

Which Article of the Constitution grants High Courts authority over subordinate courts?

1. a. Article 221 of the Constitution
2. b. Article 236 of the Constitution
3. c. Article 235 of the Constitution
4. d. Article 226 of the Constitution

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Article 235 vests a High Court with control over the district courts and subordinate courts within its jurisdiction, including matters of posting, promotion, and discipline.

Question 42

Under Indian law, which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with punishment for identity theft?

1. a. Section 66B
2. b. Section 67A
3. c. Section 66C
4. d. Section 43

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000 criminalises the fraudulent or dishonest use of another person's identifying information — such as a password or unique identification feature.

Question 43

Which branch of agriculture focuses on silk production through silkworm rearing?

1. a. Apiculture
2. b. Piggery
3. c. Poultry
4. d. Sericulture

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Sericulture is the science of rearing silkworms (chiefly the mulberry silkworm) to produce silk; apiculture, by contrast, refers to beekeeping.

Question 44

In which year was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) established?

1. a. 2010
2. b. 2000
3. c. 2015
4. d. 2005

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for the speedy disposal of environment-related disputes.

Question 45

Which landmark case upheld the validity of Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, including fundamental rights?

1. a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
2. b. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
3. c. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
4. d. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Correct answer: D

Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court upheld Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights, but held that it cannot alter the Constitution's 'basic structure'.

Question 46

With which primary objective was the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 enacted?

1. a. To control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wildlife and its derivatives
2. b. To increase export of wildlife products
3. c. To regulate hunting licences for recreation
4. d. To promote tourism through wildlife safaris

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was primarily enacted to conserve wildlife by curbing poaching, smuggling, and illegal trade in wild animals and their derived products.

Question 47

What is the scientific name of the plant from which the opioid drug heroin is extracted?

1. a. Erythroxylum coca
2. b. Papaver somniferum
3. c. Datura
4. d. Cannabis sativa

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Morphine is obtained from the raw latex of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum), and heroin is chemically synthesised from morphine.

Question 48

The Right to Constitutional Remedies is often called the "heart and soul of the Constitution." Who described it this way?

1. a. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. b. Sardar Patel
3. c. Mahatma Gandhi
4. d. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 (the Right to Constitutional Remedies) the 'heart and soul of the Constitution', since it is what guarantees enforcement of all other fundamental rights.

Question 49

Which of the following metals can displace copper from copper sulphate due to its higher reactivity?

1. a. Zinc
2. b. Silver
3. c. Gold
4. d. Copper

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Zinc lies above copper in the reactivity series, so it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution, forming zinc sulphate (Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu).

Question 50

Which type of cells were central to the discovery honoured by the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their role in regulating the immune system?

1. a. Regulatory T cells
2. b. Neurons
3. c. Stem cells
4. d. Red blood cells

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine recognised the discovery of regulatory T cells and their role in peripheral immune tolerance — these cells keep the immune system from attacking the body's own tissues.

Question 51

Under Indian law, from what age is a person no longer considered a juvenile?

1. a. 18 years
2. b. 21 years
3. c. 14 years
4. d. 16 years

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, a person below 18 years of age is treated as a juvenile; on turning 18, they are legally considered an adult.

Question 52

How soon must a new President be elected if the office becomes vacant?

1. a. Within 1 year
2. b. Within 6 months
3. c. Immediately
4. d. Within 2 months

Correct answer: B

Explanation: As per the Constitution, an election to fill a vacancy in the office of President must be completed within six months from the date the vacancy occurs.

Question 53

The Namdhari Movement was modelled after the founding of which Sikh tradition?

1. a. Sikhism, founded by Guru Nanak
2. b. Nirankari, founded by Baba Dayal
3. c. Udasi, founded by Baba Sri Chand
4. d. Khalsa, founded by Guru Gobind Singh

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The Namdhari (Kuka) Movement, started by Baba Ram Singh in 1857, was a reformist Sikh movement that sought to revive the discipline and tradition of the Khalsa founded by Guru Gobind Singh.

Question 54

The tenure of the Lok Sabha is generally of how many years?

1. a. 5 years
2. b. 6 years
3. c. 7 years
4. d. 2 years

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The Lok Sabha's normal term is five years from the date of its first sitting, unless it is dissolved earlier.

Question 55

Under which ministry does the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) operate?

1. a. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. b. Ministry of Minority Affairs
3. c. Ministry of Labour and Employment
4. d. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), now a constitutional body under Article 338B, functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Question 56

Who is the highest-ranking Police Officer in Uttar Pradesh?

1. a. Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP)
2. b. Inspector General of Police (IGP)
3. c. Director General of Police (DGP)
4. d. Superintendent of Police (SP)

Correct answer: C

Explanation: The Director General of Police (DGP) is the highest-ranking post in the Uttar Pradesh Police, heading the entire state police force.

Question 57

Which Indian environmental law regulates the management and handling of hazardous waste?

1. a. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
2. b. Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008
3. c. Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
4. d. Forest Conservation Act, 1980

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008, framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically govern the generation, storage, transport and disposal of hazardous waste.

Question 58

How long can the President's Rule in a state be initially imposed under Article 356?

1. a. 12 months
2. b. 2 years
3. c. 3 years
4. d. 6 months

Correct answer: D

Explanation: President's Rule declared under Article 356 initially remains in force for six months; with Parliament's approval it can be extended, up to a maximum of three years.

Question 59

How many stages are there in the Civil Services Examination conducted for selection into All India Services?

1. a. 2 stages
2. b. 3 stages
3. c. 4 stages
4. d. 1 stage

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The Civil Services Examination conducted by UPSC has three stages: the Preliminary examination, the Main examination, and the Interview (Personality Test).

Question 60

Who launched the Foreign Currency Settlement System (FCSS) in India in October 2025?

1. a. Union Finance Minister
2. b. Chairman of SEBI
3. c. Prime Minister of India
4. d. Governor of RBI

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India launched the Foreign Currency Settlement System (FCSS) in October 2025, aimed at facilitating the settlement of foreign currency transactions within a domestic framework.

Question 61

Which nation is known by the title "Land of the Long White Cloud"?

1. a. New Zealand
2. b. India
3. c. United Kingdom
4. d. Australia

Correct answer: A

Explanation: New Zealand is called 'Aotearoa' in Māori, meaning 'land of the long white cloud' — the origin of this popular nickname.

Question 62

Which of the following committees is known as a "standing committee" in the Indian Parliament?

1. a. Ad hoc Committee
2. b. Public Accounts Committee
3. c. Joint Parliamentary Committee
4. d. Select Committee

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a standing (permanent) parliamentary committee that examines government expenditure and accounts; ad hoc and select committees, by contrast, are temporary bodies formed for a specific purpose.

Question 63

Fertilisation takes place in the ________ in human females.

1. a. Vagina
2. b. Uterus
3. c. Ovary
4. d. Fallopian tube (oviduct)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Fertilisation — the fusion of sperm and egg — normally occurs in the fallopian tube (oviduct); the fertilised egg is later implanted in the uterus.

Question 64

Which British policy directly caused the annexation of several Indian states before the Revolt of 1857?

1. a. Permanent Settlement
2. b. Subsidiary Alliance
3. c. Treaty of Versailles
4. d. Doctrine of Lapse

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Under the Doctrine of Lapse, implemented by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie, a princely state without a natural male heir was annexed by the British; this policy led to the annexation of states like Jhansi, Satara and Nagpur, and became a major grievance fuelling the Revolt of 1857.

Question 65

Which of the following is an example of a C4 plant?

1. a. Potato
2. b. Rice
3. c. Maize
4. d. Wheat

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Maize (along with plants like sugarcane and sorghum) follows the C4 photosynthetic pathway, letting it fix carbon efficiently even under high temperature and intense sunlight; wheat, rice and potato are C3 plants.

Question 66

Which of the following is an example of a crime that requires no proof of intent (mens rea)?

1. a. Murder
2. b. Theft
3. c. Strict liability offences
4. d. Assault

Correct answer: C

Explanation: In strict liability offences, culpability is established from the mere commission of the act (actus reus) alone, without needing to prove a guilty mental state (mens rea) — examples include certain regulatory offences like food adulteration or pollution.

Question 67

The Prime Minister, Union Minister and Chief Ministers are members of which council?

1. a. Regional Council
2. b. Planning Commission
3. c. Zonal Council
4. d. National Development Council

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) is an apex body comprising the Prime Minister (as chairperson), relevant Union Ministers, and the Chief Ministers of all states, tasked with reviewing national development plans.

Question 68

Which of the following best describes the relationship between legislative powers and the doctrine of separation of powers in the context of the Indian Constitution?

1. a. Legislative powers are completely independent of the executive and judiciary in India.
2. b. The separation of powers is absolute, with each branch of government functioning independently without any overlap.
3. c. The Constitution allows for a system of checks and balances among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches.
4. d. The executive alone frames and enacts all laws in India.

Correct answer: C

Explanation: The Indian Constitution does not adopt a rigid separation of powers; instead it establishes a flexible system of checks and balances among the legislature, executive and judiciary, with each organ's functions overlapping the others to some degree.

Question 69

How long does Parliament have to ratify an ordinance issued by the President?

1. a. 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance
2. b. 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
3. c. 6 months from the reassembly of Parliament
4. d. 6 weeks from the date of issue of the ordinance

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Under Article 123, an ordinance issued by the President automatically ceases to operate unless approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly.

Question 70

Which chemical released from mast cells causes allergy symptoms like sneezing and watery eyes?

1. a. Histamine
2. b. Adrenaline
3. c. Hemoglobin
4. d. Insulin

Correct answer: A

Explanation: On exposure to an allergen, mast cells release histamine, which dilates blood vessels and triggers allergy symptoms such as sneezing, a runny nose, and watery eyes.

Question 71

Under the Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which section is responsible for ensuring the protection of witnesses?

1. a. Section 198
2. b. Section 298
3. c. Section 398
4. d. Section 98

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Section 398 of the Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 deals with the Witness Protection Scheme, requiring every state government to prepare and implement a scheme for the protection of witnesses.

Question 72

Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with -

1. a. Penalty for sending offensive messages
2. b. Protection against hacking
3. c. Power to monitor and decrypt information
4. d. Power to issue directions for blocking public access to information

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Section 69A empowers the Central Government to direct intermediaries to block public access to any information, on grounds such as national security or public order.

Question 73

What is the primary legislation governing income tax in India?

1. a. The Central Excise Act, 1944
2. b. The Companies Act, 2013
3. c. The Income Tax Act, 1961
4. d. The Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017

Correct answer: C

Explanation: The Income Tax Act, 1961 is the principal legislation governing the levy, computation, and collection of tax on income earned by individuals and entities in India.

Question 74

What is the maximum duration for which the Vice President can serve as acting President?

1. a. 9 months
2. b. 4 months
3. c. 6 months
4. d. 1 year

Correct answer: C

Explanation: When the office of President falls vacant, the Vice President acts as President for a maximum of six months, by which time a new President's election must be completed.

Question 75

Which 2013 Act of the Indian Parliament lays down the procedure and rules for granting compensation, rehabilitation and resettlement to the affected persons?

1. a. Land Acceptance Act
2. b. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act
3. c. Land Affiliation Act
4. d. Land Agreement Act

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The 2013 Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act sets out the process for land acquisition for public purposes, while ensuring fair compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement for affected persons.

Question 76

When was the Digital India campaign launched?

1. a. 2017
2. b. 2012
3. c. 2014
4. d. 2015

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The Digital India campaign was launched on 1 July 2015, with the aim of transforming India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.

Question 77

What is the transition boundary that separates the mesosphere from the stratosphere called?

1. a. Troposphere
2. b. Exosphere
3. c. Mesopause
4. d. Stratopause

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The stratopause is the transition boundary that separates the stratosphere from the mesosphere that lies above it.

Question 78

In the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) case, why did the Supreme Court primarily strike down Section 66A of the IT Act?

1. a. It failed to provide for digital forensics procedures.
2. b. It imposed excessive penalties for minor digital offences.
3. c. It was vague, excessively broad and curtailed freedom of speech beyond constitutionally permitted restrictions.
4. d. It allowed defamation claims without judicial oversight.

Correct answer: C

Explanation: The Supreme Court found that Section 66A's terms (like 'grossly offensive' or 'annoying') were so vague and overbroad that it chilled free speech under Article 19(1)(a) beyond the reasonable restrictions permitted under Article 19(2), and struck it down as unconstitutional.

Question 79

Which of the following is a cloud computing service?

1. a. Adobe Illustrator
2. b. Google Drive
3. c. Adobe Photoshop
4. d. Microsoft PowerPoint

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Google Drive is a cloud-based storage service that lets users store and share files over the internet; the other three are locally-installed desktop software applications.

Question 80

Which device is used to strengthen and retransmit signals over a network?

1. a. Firewall
2. b. Switch
3. c. Repeater
4. d. Modem

Correct answer: C

Explanation: A repeater is a networking device that receives a weakened signal, amplifies it, and retransmits it further, preserving signal quality over longer distances.

Question 81

If Rs. 15,000 is lent at 6% simple interest per annum and the total amount after 3 years is Rs. 17,700, calculate the interest earned.

1. a. Rs. 2,000
2. b. Rs. 3,700
3. c. Rs. 3,000
4. d. Rs. 2,700

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Interest earned = Total amount − Principal = 17,700 − 15,000 = Rs. 2,700.

Question 82

The value of 0.2 × 0.2 × 0.3 × 0.4 × 0.5 / 0.2 × 0.4 is:

1. a. 0.08
2. b. 0.06
3. c. 0.03
4. d. 0.09

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Cancelling the common 0.2 and 0.4 from numerator and denominator leaves 0.2 × 0.3 × 0.5 = 0.03.

Question 83

Simplify: 81² × 10² / 9

1. a. 100
2. b. 900
3. c. 90
4. d. 72900

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 81² = 6561 and 10² = 100, so 6561 × 100 = 656100; 656100 ÷ 9 = 72,900.

Question 84

Which of the following numbers is not a prime number?

1. a. 1019
2. b. 1003
3. c. 1009
4. d. 1021

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 1003 = 17 × 59, so it is not prime; 1009, 1019 and 1021 are all prime numbers.

Question 85

Two operations are defined for any numbers p and q: (i) p $ q = p + q + 8pq (ii) p % q = p − q − 13q. Find the value of (37 $ 41) % 29.

1. a. 10233
2. b. 10409
3. c. 10340
4. d. 11808

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 37 $ 41 = 37 + 41 + 8×37×41 = 78 + 12136 = 12214. Then 12214 % 29 = 12214 − 29 − 13×29 = 12214 − 29 − 377 = 11808.

Question 86

A solid cylinder with a radius of 7 cm and height of 24 cm is melted and recast into cones, each with a radius of 7 cm and height of 8 cm. How many cones can be made?

1. a. 8 cones
2. b. 10 cones
3. c. 9 cones
4. d. 7 cones

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Volume of cylinder = πr²h = π×7²×24. Volume of one cone = (1/3)πr²h = (1/3)×π×7²×8. Number of cones = cylinder volume ÷ cone volume = 24 ÷ (8/3) = 24×3/8 = 9.

Question 87

A factory produces 10110 light bulbs every month. If 20% of the bulbs are defective, how many bulbs are defective?

1. a. 2012
2. b. 2122
3. c. 2202
4. d. 2022

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 20% of 10110 = 10110 × 0.20 = 2022 bulbs.

Question 88

A train running at 72 km/h takes 120 seconds to pass a platform 200 m long. Find the length of the train.

1. a. 2200 m
2. b. 3200 m
3. c. 1250 m
4. d. 1200 m

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 72 km/h = 20 m/s. Distance covered in 120 seconds = 20×120 = 2400 m, which equals (train length + platform length). Train length = 2400 − 200 = 2200 m.

Question 89

A shopkeeper buys 20 kg of basmati rice at Rs. 50 per kg and 30 kg of sona masoori rice at Rs. 35 per kg. He mixes both types and sells the mixture at Rs. 42 per kg. Find his overall profit or loss.

1. a. Rs. 50 loss
2. b. Rs. 50 profit
3. c. Rs. 45 loss
4. d. Rs. 45 profit

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Total cost = (20×50) + (30×35) = 1000 + 1050 = Rs. 2050. Total quantity = 50 kg. Total selling price = 50×42 = Rs. 2100. Profit = 2100 − 2050 = Rs. 50.

Question 90

Two ropes are of different lengths. The HCF of their lengths is 2 cm and the product of their lengths is 1848 sq cm. Find the ratio of their LCM to HCF.

1. a. 462 : 1
2. b. 848 : 3
3. c. 1 : 432
4. d. 1 : 924

Correct answer: A

Explanation: For any two numbers, HCF × LCM = their product. So LCM = 1848 ÷ 2 = 924. LCM : HCF = 924 : 2 = 462 : 1.

Question 91

Seven bells start tolling together. They toll at intervals of 3, 5, 7, 9, 12, 15 and 18 seconds respectively. How many times will all the bells toll together in 42 minutes?

1. a. 2 times
2. b. 3 times
3. c. 4 times
4. d. 1 time

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The LCM of the intervals (3,5,7,9,12,15,18) is 1260 seconds — meaning they toll together every 1260 seconds. 42 minutes = 2520 seconds. After the initial start, they coincide 2520 ÷ 1260 = 2 more times within that span.

Question 92

A batsman scored 156 runs, which included 5 fours and 10 sixes. What percentage of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

1. a. 50%
2. b. 48.72%
3. c. 46.35%
4. d. 52.22%

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Runs scored off boundaries = (5×4) + (10×6) = 20 + 60 = 80. Runs scored by running = 156 − 80 = 76. Percentage = (76/156) × 100 ≈ 48.72%.

Question 93

A refrigerator is marked at Rs. 9,600. A shopkeeper offers successive discounts of 12% and 25%. If he still earns a profit of 20%, find the cost price of the refrigerator.

1. a. Rs. 5,295
2. b. Rs. 5,280
3. c. Rs. 5,239
4. d. Rs. 5,216

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Selling price after successive discounts = 9600 × 0.88 × 0.75 = Rs. 6336. Cost price = Selling price / 1.20 = 6336 / 1.2 = Rs. 5,280.

Question 94

A and B start a business investing Rs. 24,000 and Rs. 16,000 respectively. After 6 months of starting the business, C joins them with an investment of Rs. 20,000. If the total profit at the end of 2 years from the start of the business is Rs. 55,000, find B's share of the profit.

1. a. Rs. 13,000
2. b. Rs. 16,000
3. c. Rs. 12,000
4. d. Rs. 15,000

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Capital×time ratio: A = 24000×24 = 576000; B = 16000×24 = 384000; C = 20000×18 (invested for only 18 months) = 360000. Total = 1320000. B's share = (384000/1320000) × 55000 = Rs. 16,000.

Question 95

If a # b = a² + 9ab + 7b², then find the value of 3 # 4.

1. a. 230
2. b. 239
3. c. 240
4. d. 229

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 3 # 4 = 3² + 9×3×4 + 7×4² = 9 + 108 + 112 = 229.

Question 96

A beats B by 500 meters in a 1000 metres race. If B beats C by 250 meters in the same race, by how many meters does A beat C in that race?

1. a. 625 meters
2. b. 750 meters
3. c. 500 meters
4. d. 375 meters

Correct answer: A

Explanation: When A runs 1000 m, B runs 500 m, so speed ratio A:B = 2:1. When B runs 1000 m, C runs 750 m, so B:C = 4:3. Combining, A:B:C = 8:4:3. When A runs 1000 m, C runs (3/8)×1000 = 375 m, so A beats C by 1000−375 = 625 meters.

Question 97

Find the value of 50 – {23 – 12 ÷ (5 + 9 × 2 – 19)}.

1. a. 28
2. b. 25
3. c. 31
4. d. 30

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Inside the bracket: 5+18−19 = 4. Then 12÷4 = 3. Then 23−3 = 20. Finally 50−20 = 30.

Question 98

If the ratio of boys to girls in a class is 25 : 29, what is the fraction of boys in the class?

1. a. 25/54
2. b. 54/25
3. c. 4/54
4. d. 24/54

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Total parts = 25+29 = 54. Fraction of boys = 25/54.

Question 99

The marked price of a shirt is Rs. 7,200. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 15% on the marked price to the customer. Despite giving this discount, the shopkeeper manages to earn a profit of 20% on the cost price of the shirt. Find the cost price of the shirt.

1. a. Rs. 6,120
2. b. Rs. 5,040
3. c. Rs. 6,245
4. d. Rs. 5,100

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Selling price = 7200 × 0.85 = Rs. 6,120. Cost price = Selling price / 1.20 = 6120 / 1.2 = Rs. 5,100.

Question 100

What is the ratio of 54 to 144?

1. a. 8 : 3
2. b. 2 : 3
3. c. 6 : 7
4. d. 3 : 8

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The HCF of 54 and 144 is 18. 54÷18=3 and 144÷18=8, so the ratio is 3:8.

Question 101

If a number with 3 decimal places is multiplied by a number with 4 decimal places, how many digits will be to the right of the decimal point in the product?

1. a. 9
2. b. 5
3. c. 3
4. d. 7

Correct answer: D

Explanation: When multiplying, the number of decimal places adds up: 3 + 4 = 7 decimal places.

Question 102

Anita invested Rs. 12,000 at 7% simple interest per annum for 4 years. If the total amount after 4 years is Rs. 15,360, find the interest earned by Anita.

1. a. Rs. 3,360
2. b. Rs. 3,306
3. c. Rs. 3,603
4. d. Rs. 3,630

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Interest earned = Total amount − Principal = 15,360 − 12,000 = Rs. 3,360. (Verification: simple interest = 12000×7×4/100 = Rs. 3,360, which matches.)

Question 103

Find the value of 80 – {20 – 15 ÷ (5 + 8 × 2 – 20)}.

1. a. 70
2. b. 80
3. c. 79
4. d. 75

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Inside the bracket: 5+16−20 = 1. Then 15÷1 = 15. Then 20−15 = 5. Finally 80−5 = 75.

Question 104

A sum of Rs. 12,000 is invested at a rate of 4% per annum, compounded half-yearly. Find the total amount after 1 year.

1. a. Rs. 12,524.4
2. b. Rs. 12,484.8
3. c. Rs. 12,390.7
4. d. Rs. 12,112.6

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Half-yearly rate = 2%, periods = 2. Amount = 12000 × (1.02)² = 12000 × 1.0404 = Rs. 12,484.8.

Question 105

The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1,500 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1,000. At what price should the article be sold to make a 30% profit?

1. a. Rs. 2,563
2. b. Rs. 1,250
3. c. Rs. 1,738
4. d. Rs. 1,625

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Let cost price be x. (1500−x)/x = (x−1000)/x ⇒ 1500−x = x−1000 ⇒ 2x = 2500 ⇒ x = 1250. For a 30% profit, selling price = 1250×1.30 = Rs. 1,625.

Question 106

The salaries of Priya and Neha are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively. After an increase of Rs. 3,500 each, the ratio of their new salaries becomes 11 : 15 respectively. What was Neha's previous salary?

1. a. Rs. 42,000
2. b. Rs. 49,000
3. c. Rs. 52,000
4. d. Rs. 45,000

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Let the salaries be 5x and 7x. (5x+3500)/(7x+3500) = 11/15. Solving: 15(5x+3500) = 11(7x+3500) ⇒ 75x+52500 = 77x+38500 ⇒ 2x = 14000 ⇒ x = 7000. Neha's previous salary = 7×7000 = Rs. 49,000.

Question 107

If two-third of a number is 60% of 7800, then find the number.

1. a. 7000
2. b. 7100
3. c. 7020
4. d. 7200

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 60% of 7800 = 4680. If the number is x, then (2/3)x = 4680, so x = 4680 × 3/2 = 7020.

Question 108

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two numbers is 48 and their Least Common Multiple (LCM) is 3456. If one of the numbers is 768, find the other number.

1. a. 432
2. b. 144
3. c. 108
4. d. 216

Correct answer: D

Explanation: HCF × LCM = product of the two numbers. 48 × 3456 = 165888. The other number = 165888 ÷ 768 = 216.

Question 109

If X, Y, Z and W are four consecutive odd numbers whose average is 54, what is the difference between (X + W) and (Y + Z)?

1. a. 4
2. b. 6
3. c. 0
4. d. 2

Correct answer: C

Explanation: With an average of 54, the numbers are 51, 53, 55, 57. X+W = 51+57 = 108 and Y+Z = 53+55 = 108, so the difference is 0 — for any four consecutive odd numbers, the sum of the outer pair always equals the sum of the inner pair.

Question 110

A car travels from city A to city B at a speed of 50 km/h and returns at 80 km/h. What is the average speed for the entire trip? (Approximately)

1. a. 59.54 km/h
2. b. 63.54 km/h
3. c. 64.54 km/h
4. d. 61.54 km/h

Correct answer: D

Explanation: For an equal-distance round trip, average speed = 2×50×80/(50+80) = 8000/130 ≈ 61.54 km/h.

Question 111

Direction: Study the following table, which shows the number of candidates appeared and qualified in an IPS examination from different states over the given years, and answer the question. What percentage of candidates from state DEL qualified, out of the total who appeared across all years?

1. a. 16.20%
2. b. 15.20%
3. c. 14.20%
4. d. 17.50%

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Total candidates appeared from state DEL across all years = 3500+9600+6500+5800+4920 = 30,320. Total qualified = 860+760+880+1456+655 = 4,611. Percentage = (4611/30320)×100 ≈ 15.20%.

Question 112

Direction: Study the following table, which shows a company's annual expenditure (in Lakh Rupees) over the given years, and answer the question based on it. What is the approximate ratio between the company's total tax expenses and its total fuel and transport expenses for all years combined?

1. a. 3:5
2. b. 15:19
3. c. 1:2
4. d. 10:13

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Total tax expenses across all years = 73+113+88+98+108 = 480 lakh. Total fuel and transport expenses = 85+122+111+147+159 = 624 lakh. Ratio = 480:624 = 10:13 (dividing by 48).

Question 113

Direction: The following table shows the percentage distribution of a company's annual marketing budget (Rs. 12 crore) across five different channels. Based on the data, what is the difference (in Rs. lakhs) between the amount spent on the combined expenditure on Events and Public Relations and the amount spent on Digital Marketing?

1. a. 12 lakhs
2. b. 36 lakhs
3. c. 48 lakhs
4. d. 24 lakhs

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Total budget = 12 crore = 1200 lakh. Events + Public Relations = 15%+15% = 30% = 360 lakh. Digital Marketing = 28% = 336 lakh. Difference = 360−336 = 24 lakh.

Question 114

Direction: The given table shows the sales (in lakhs) made by five different branches (C1 to C5) of a company over two years - 2024 and 2025. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch C3 for both years to the total sales of branch C5 for both years?

1. a. 35:19
2. b. 25:17
3. c. 25:50
4. d. 49:75

Correct answer: B

Explanation: C3's total sales (both years) = 25+100 = 125. C5's total sales = 35+50 = 85. Ratio = 125:85 = 25:17 (dividing by 5).

Question 115

Pampa is facing South. He turns 225° clockwise, then turns 90° anticlockwise, then again turns 225° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now?

1. a. North
2. b. South
3. c. East
4. d. West

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Starting at South (180°), turning 225° clockwise gives 45° (Northeast). Turning 90° anticlockwise from there gives −45°, i.e. 315° (Northwest). Turning 225° anticlockwise from there gives 315−225=90°, i.e. East.

Question 116

Kiara walks 25 meters towards the North from her starting point. She then turns right and walks 30 meters, followed by a left turn and walks another 10 meters. Finally, she turns to her left again and walks 30 meters towards the West. How far is Kiara from her starting point now?

1. a. 27 meters
2. b. 29 meters
3. c. 33 meters
4. d. 35 meters

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Taking the start as (0,0): North 25m gives (0,25). Turning right (now facing East) 30m gives (30,25). Turning left (now facing North) 10m gives (30,35). Turning left (now facing West) 30m gives (0,35). Distance from start = √(0²+35²) = 35 meters.

Question 117

Which of the following words cannot be formed from the letters of the word "ACCOMMODATION" without reusing any letter more than it appears?

1. a. DOMINANT
2. b. MOTION
3. c. COMMAND
4. d. ACTION

Correct answer: A

Explanation: ACCOMMODATION contains the letters A×2, C×2, O×3, M×2, D×1, T×1, I×1, N×1 — only one 'N' is available. DOMINANT needs two 'N's (D-O-M-I-N-A-N-T), which aren't available; the other three words can all be formed with the letters on hand.

Question 118

Find the word that can be formed using the letters "G", "I", "N", "E", "A", "R", "T".

1. a. GRANITE
2. b. RETGAIN
3. c. NEATGR
4. d. REATING

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The only genuine English word formed by using all seven letters G, R, A, N, I, T, E — each exactly once — is 'GRANITE'.

Question 119

Refer to the following sequence of characters: A B 1 4 Z X % 7 D Q ! 3 @ N M *. What is the 8th character to the right of the 2nd character from the left end?

1. a. !
2. b. Q
3. c. D
4. d. 3

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The 2nd character from the left is 'B' (position 2). Counting 8 positions to its right lands on position (2+8=10), which in the given sequence is the character 'Q'.

Question 120

Which of the following words can be formed using the letters of the word 'ABRACADABRA', without repeating any letter more than it appears?

1. a. BRACADO
2. b. COBRA
3. c. CADBERY
4. d. RADAR

Correct answer: D

Explanation: ABRACADABRA contains A×5, B×2, R×2, C×1, D×1 — with no 'O', 'E' or 'Y' at all, so BRACADO, COBRA and CADBERY cannot be formed. RADAR (R,A,D,A,R) needs R×2, A×2, D×1, all of which are available.

Question 121

Jahanvi went 12 km to the West from her house, then turned left and walked 5 km. She then turned East and walked 16 km, and finally turned left and walked 2 km. How far was she from her house?

1. a. 10 km
2. b. 15 km
3. c. 7 km
4. d. 5 km

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Taking the house as (0,0): West 12km gives (-12,0). Turning left (now South) 5km gives (-12,-5). Walking East 16km gives (4,-5). Turning left (now North) 2km gives (4,-3). Distance from house = √(4²+3²) = 5 km.

Question 122

Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the series: QZR, NYO, KWL, ?, EPF

1. a. HIT
2. b. GTH
3. c. HJK
4. d. HTI

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Each of the three letter-positions shifts independently: the 1st letters Q,N,K,?,E each drop by 3 (next is H); the 2nd letters Z,Y,W,?,P drop by 1,2,3,4 respectively (next is T); the 3rd letters R,O,L,?,F each drop by 3 (next is I). So the missing group is HTI.

Question 123

Select the letter-number cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the series: 193WZ, 191TX, ?, 179NT, 173KR, 167HP, 163EN

1. a. 181QV
2. b. 186JN
3. c. 183OB
4. d. 182SM

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The numbers are consecutive prime numbers in descending order: 193,191,181,179,173,167,163, so the missing number is 181. The first letter drops 3 positions each time (W,T,?,N,K,H,E ⇒ Q) and the second letter drops 2 positions each time (Z,X,?,T,R,P,N ⇒ V). So the answer is 181QV.

Question 124

Choose the option that does not belong to the group.

1. a. 10303
2. b. 10651
3. c. 10947
4. d. 10253

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 10651, 10947 and 10253 each follow a consistent digit-relationship pattern among themselves, while 10303 breaks that pattern, making it the odd one out.

Question 125

While introducing a young girl to his friend, Karan said: "The woman who is married to my father is the mother of her brother." How is the girl related to Karan?

1. a. Mother
2. b. Sister-in-law
3. c. Niece
4. d. Sister

Correct answer: D

Explanation: 'The woman married to my father' is Karan's mother. This same mother is also the mother of the girl's brother — meaning the girl's brother is Karan's mother's son, i.e., Karan's own brother. That makes the girl Karan's sister.

Question 126

In a certain code, KILLER is written as PROOVI and RUNNER is written as IFMMVI. How is NUMBER written in the same code?

1. a. MFYNVI
2. b. MENVIF
3. c. MNFYIV
4. d. MFNYVI

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Each letter is replaced by its mirror-letter in the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, ... N↔M) — verified by K→P, I→R, L→O, E→V, R→I. Applying the same rule to NUMBER: N→M, U→F, M→N, B→Y, E→V, R→I, giving MFNYVI.

Question 127

Riya ranks 14th from the top and 9th from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

1. a. 21
2. b. 20
3. c. 24
4. d. 22

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Total students = (rank from top) + (rank from bottom) − 1 = 14 + 9 − 1 = 22.

Question 128

If the direction East is rotated exactly 45° counter clockwise to become North-East (i.e., halfway between East and North), then applying the same rotational logic, what direction will South point towards?

1. a. North-East
2. b. South-West
3. c. South-East
4. d. North-West

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Every direction is being rotated 45° counter clockwise. East (90°) → 45° (Northeast), as given. Similarly, South (180°) → 180−45=135° (Southeast).

Question 129

Which of the following options is correct from the given statement? Statement: B < P = V > E > A > Q

1. a. A < B
2. b. Q < P
3. c. B > V
4. d. E > P

Correct answer: B

Explanation: From the statement: Q < A < E < V = P, so it follows transitively that Q < P is definitely true. Both B > V and E > P contradict the statement (since B < V and E < P), while no direct relationship between A and B can be established from it.

Question 130

Choose the set from the given options in which the letters follow the same relationship as in the given set. (K, M, P), (B, D, G)

1. a. (F, I, P)
2. b. (C, F, L)
3. c. (D, G, M)
4. d. (E, G, J)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Both given sets follow a +2, +3 pattern: K(+2)M(+3)P and B(+2)D(+3)G. (E, G, J) follows the same pattern: E(+2)G(+3)J.

Question 131

If A stands for '+', B stands for '-', C stands for '×', and D stands for '÷', find the value of "112 C 6 A 58 D 2 B 16".

1. a. 633
2. b. 651
3. c. 685
4. d. 683

Correct answer: C

Explanation: After substitution the expression becomes: 112×6 + 58÷2 − 16. By BODMAS: 112×6=672, 58÷2=29. So 672+29−16 = 685.

Question 132

What is the missing letter-pair in the series? ZY, XV, ____, QM, LG, FZ

1. a. UR
2. b. DH
3. c. EV
4. d. FA

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The gap between successive letters grows by 1 each time. First letter: Z(26),X(24,-2),U(21,-3),Q(17,-4),L(12,-5),F(6,-6). Second letter: Y(25),V(22,-3),R(18,-4),M(13,-5),G(7,-6),Z(cyclic,-7). So the missing pair is 'UR'.

Question 133

What is the next term in the given alphanumeric sequence? C2, F3, J5, O7, _____

1. a. O13
2. b. U11
3. c. J11
4. d. L13

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The gaps between the letters C,F,J,O grow as 3,4,5 (next gap is 6, giving the letter U). The numbers 2,3,5,7 are prime numbers, and the next prime is 11. So the next term is U11.

Question 134

In a certain code language, the word "WATER" is written as 25-3-22-7-20 and "FIRE" is written as 8-11-20-7. Following the same coding pattern, what will be the code for the word "EARTH"?

1. a. 7-3-21-23-11
2. b. 7-3-20-22-10
3. c. 7-3-22-24-11
4. d. 7-3-22-23-11

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Each letter's code is its alphabet position +2 (W=23+2=25, A=1+2=3, T=20+2=22, E=5+2=7, R=18+2=20 — verified from both examples). For EARTH: E=7, A=3, R=20, T=22, H=10. So the code is 7-3-20-22-10.

Question 135

If January 21st, 2021 was a Thursday, what day is August 3rd, 2021?

1. a. Monday
2. b. Tuesday
3. c. Wednesday
4. d. Friday

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Total days from 21 January to 3 August 2021 = 10(rest of Jan)+28(Feb)+31(Mar)+30(Apr)+31(May)+30(Jun)+31(Jul)+3(Aug) = 194 days. 194 ÷ 7 = 27 remainder 5. Five days after Thursday is Tuesday.

Question 136

Jacob is standing 375th from the left side in a row, and Olivia is 225th from the right side. There are 120 people between them. Find the total number of people in the row.

1. a. 720
2. b. 740
3. c. 730
4. d. 700

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Let total people = N. Olivia's position from the left = N−225+1. The people between Jacob and Olivia = (N−225+1) − 375 − 1 = 120, i.e. N−600=120, so N=720.

Question 137

In the following analogy, the relationship between the first pair of numbers is the same as the relationship between the second pair. Choose the correct answer from the given options that should replace the question mark (?) to complete the analogy. 67 : 120.6 : : 76 : ?

1. a. 140.2
2. b. 138.4
3. c. 136.8
4. d. 135.6

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 120.6 ÷ 67 = 1.8, meaning the second number equals the first multiplied by 1.8. 76 × 1.8 = 136.8.

Question 138

Emily is the sister-in-law of Ryan and is also the daughter-in-law of Mr. Thomas. Mr. Thomas has a son named Daniel, who is the only brother of Ryan. How is Ryan related to Mr. Thomas?

1. a. Son
2. b. Son-in-law
3. c. Uncle
4. d. Niece

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Daniel is Mr. Thomas's son and also Ryan's only brother, so Ryan and Daniel are brothers, both being Mr. Thomas's sons. Therefore, Ryan is Mr. Thomas's son.

Question 139

Find the letter whose position equals the average of the positions of the letters F and R in the English alphabet.

1. a. L
2. b. M
3. c. N
4. d. K

Correct answer: A

Explanation: F is the 6th letter and R is the 18th letter of the alphabet. Their average = (6+18)/2 = 12, which is the position of L.

Question 140

P and Q are siblings, with P being the brother. R is the father of P. Q has a daughter named T, who has a brother named S. The father of S's sister is U. How is U related to R?

1. a. Brother
2. b. Son-in-law
3. c. Nephew
4. d. Grandson

Correct answer: B

Explanation: R is the father of both P and Q (since they are siblings). S's sister is T, so T's father is U. Since Q is T's mother, U must be Q's husband. Thus U is married to R's daughter Q, making U R's son-in-law.

Question 141

Study the arrangement: 846, 762, 832, 275, 165. What is the sum of the second digit of the largest number and the second digit of the smallest number in the given arrangement?

1. a. 10
2. b. 18
3. c. 15
4. d. 12

Correct answer: A

Explanation: The largest number is 846, whose second digit is 4. The smallest number is 165, whose second digit is 6. Sum = 4+6 = 10.

Question 142

Consider the given relationships: A @ B means A is the mother of B; A & B means A is the brother of B; A # B means A is the wife of B; and A % B means A is the son of B. Which of the following expressions shows that T is the son of R and S?

1. a. T % R # S
2. b. T % S @ R
3. c. R # S % T
4. d. R @ S % T

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 'T % R' means T is the son of R, and 'R # S' means R is the wife of S — i.e., S is the father and R the mother. Together, T % R # S shows T is the son of both R (mother) and S (father).

Question 143

If the word "BRAIN" has a numerical value of 44, what would be the corresponding value of the word "HEART"?

1. a. 45
2. b. 52
3. c. 40
4. d. 57

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The numerical value is the sum of each letter's alphabet position: B(2)+R(18)+A(1)+I(9)+N(14)=44, matching the given value. Applying the same rule to HEART: H(8)+E(5)+A(1)+R(18)+T(20)=52.

Question 144

Choose the set from the given options in which the relationship between the numbers is the same as in the given set. (43, 47, 53), (61, 67, 71)

1. a. (21, 28, 33)
2. b. (14, 18, 25)
3. c. (25, 27, 37)
4. d. (23, 29, 31)

Correct answer: D

Explanation: In both given sets, the three numbers are consecutive prime numbers (43,47,53 and 61,67,71). (23, 29, 31) is also a set of three consecutive prime numbers, making it the correct answer.

Question 145

Find the missing number in the series. 16, 37, 79, _____, 331, 667

1. a. 148
2. b. 163
3. c. 129
4. d. 105

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Each term = previous term × 2 + 5. 16×2+5=37; 37×2+5=79; 79×2+5=163; 163×2+5=331; 331×2+5=667 — all consistent. So the missing number is 163.

Question 146

If ! = 6, @ = 4, # = 3, then find the value of "! − # × @".

1. a. −6
2. b. 4
3. c. 6
4. d. −4

Correct answer: A

Explanation: By BODMAS, multiplication happens first: # × @ = 3×4 = 12. Then ! − 12 = 6 − 12 = -6.

Question 147

Choose the word which is different from the rest.

1. a. Salt
2. b. Milk
3. c. Butter
4. d. Curd

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Milk, butter and curd are all dairy products, whereas salt is a mineral and not a dairy product.

Question 148

Find the missing number in the given series. 76586, 38293, 19146.5, _____, 4786.625

1. a. 9575.25
2. b. 9570.25
3. c. 9580.25
4. d. 9573.25

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Each term is obtained by dividing the previous term by 2: 76586÷2=38293; 38293÷2=19146.5; 19146.5÷2=9573.25; 9573.25÷2=4786.625 — consistent. So the missing number is 9573.25.

Question 149

Pick out the odd one from the following options.

1. a. 1815/825
2. b. 759/345
3. c. 283/105
4. d. 649/295

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 1815/825, 759/345 and 649/295 all simplify to 11/5 (dividing by 165, 69, and 59 respectively). 283/105 (where 283 is a prime number) does not follow this pattern, making it the odd one out.

Question 150

Pointing to a photograph, Rani said, 'He is the brother of my father.' How is the person in the photograph related to Rani?

1. a. Grandfather
2. b. Uncle
3. c. Brother-in-law
4. d. Brother

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 'My father's brother' is the sibling of Rani's father, which makes him Rani's paternal uncle (chacha).

Question 151

Each group of letters transforms into the next based on a pattern. Pick the set from the options that follows the same transformation. SEAT - TGBV - TAES, FINE - GKOG - ENIF

1. a. PATH - APHT - HTAP
2. b. GATE - HTAF - TBGF
3. c. NOTE - EPOF - TONE
4. d. RING - SKOI - GNIR

Correct answer: D

Explanation: Step 1: each letter shifts alternately by +1, +2, +1, +2 (S+1=T, E+2=G, A+1=B, T+2=V — confirmed by SEAT→TGBV). Step 2: the original word is reversed (SEAT reversed = TAES). Applying this to RING: R+1=S, I+2=K, N+1=O, G+2=I ⇒ SKOI (matches the given middle term); RING reversed = GNIR (matches).

Question 152

Select the correct option that completes the given analogy. (Note: The first letter-number cluster is related to the second letter-number cluster in a certain way. Identify this relationship and apply the same pattern to the third letter-number cluster to find the fourth.) M13P16S19 : L12O15R18 : : K11N14Q17 : ?

1. a. I9L12O15
2. b. H8K11N14
3. c. G7J10M13
4. d. J10M13P16

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The number written with each letter is that letter's own alphabet position (M=13, P=16, S=19, etc.). Going from the first cluster to the second, every letter shifts back by 1 position (M→L, P→O, S→R). Applying the same rule to the third cluster K11N14Q17: K→J, N→M, Q→P, giving J10M13P16.

Question 153

In a School, some students are Singers and some are Musicians. The Rectangle represents Singers, and the Square represents Musicians. The numbers in the overlapping regions indicate students who are both Singers and Musicians. From the given diagram, how many students are only Musicians and not Singers?

1. a. 56
2. b. 61
3. c. 74
4. d. 33

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The part of Musicians (the vertical band) that lies outside Singers (the horizontal band) is split into two pieces in the diagram: 15 above and 18 below. Only Musicians = 15+18 = 33.

Question 154

Which diagram correctly illustrates the relationship between Halogens, Fluorine and Bromine?

1. a. Option 1
2. b. Option 2
3. c. Option 3
4. d. Option 4

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Halogens is a broad category, under which Fluorine and Bromine are two distinct, mutually exclusive elements (no element can be both at once). The correct diagram is the one where one large circle (Halogens) contains two smaller, non-overlapping circles (Fluorine, Bromine) inside it.

Question 155

In the given diagram: The Rectangle represents people who are working as Teachers. The Square represents people who are working as Doctors. The Ellipse represents people who are working as Engineers. The Rhombus represents people who are working as Lawyers. The numbers in the diagram represent the number of people in each overlapping or non-overlapping section. Identify the number of people who are exclusively Engineers, with no involvement in any other profession.

1. a. 7
2. b. 9
3. c. 3
4. d. 8

Correct answer: D

Explanation: The part of the ellipse (Engineers) that lies outside the square, rectangle and rhombus altogether — i.e., the ellipse's rightmost, non-overlapping region — is marked 8. So exactly 8 people are exclusively Engineers.

Question 156

Which of the following given options represents the diagram showing the relationship among Books, Story Books and Climax?

1. a. Option 1
2. b. Option 2
3. c. Option 3
4. d. Option 4

Correct answer: D

Explanation: This is a strict nested relationship: not every book is a story book, but every story book has a climax — i.e., Climax ⊂ Story Books ⊂ Books. This is best represented by three fully concentric circles, each nested inside the previous.

Question 157

A coaching institute surveyed 250 students about their exam preferences and it is shown in the Venn diagram. How many students are not preparing for both JEE and NEET?

1. a. 10
2. b. 40
3. c. 50
4. d. 30

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Sum of the three regions shown in the diagram = 120+40+80 = 240. Total students surveyed = 250. Students preparing for neither JEE nor NEET = 250−240 = 10.

Question 158

In a survey of 100 individuals, a diagram shows how many of them liked each of three fruits (cherries, bananas, apples). Based on that diagram, determine the number of people who did not like any of the three fruits.

1. a. 15
2. b. 9
3. c. 7
4. d. 78

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Sum of all seven regions in the diagram = 18+8+20+7+5+10+25 = 93. Total people surveyed = 100. People who liked none of the fruits = 100−93 = 7.

Question 159

What is the correct water image for the following? T3Q9VM2

1. a. Option 1
2. b. Option 2
3. c. Option 3
4. d. Option 4

Correct answer: D

Explanation: A water image (reflection in a water surface) flips the original text about a horizontal line — the left-to-right order of the letters/digits stays the same, but each character appears upside down (rotated 180°). So the correct water image of 'T3Q9VM2' keeps the same order with every character rotated 180°.

Question 160

Select the correct mirror image from the options given, assuming that the mirror is placed along line XY. MADHURYA

1. a. Option 1
2. b. Option 2
3. c. Option 3
4. d. Option 4

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A reflection in a vertical (XY) mirror flips the original text horizontally — the letter order reverses right-to-left, and each individual letter is also mirrored horizontally. So the correct mirror image of 'MADHURYA' has the letters in reverse order (AYRUHDAM) with each letter itself horizontally flipped.