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SSC GD Constable Mock Test 2026

This free SSC GD Constable mock test practice set has 20 questions — 5 General Intelligence & Reasoning, 5 General Knowledge & General Awareness, 5 Elementary Mathematics, 5 Hindi/English Language. It is untimed, awards 2 marks for every correct answer, and deducts 0.25 marks for every wrong answer. The full exam pattern is shown in the table below.

80 questions160 marks60 min−0.25 negativeComputer based (CBT)

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SSC GD Constable Practice Set 1

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20 questions+2 marks−0.25 negativeHindi + English

SSC GD Constable Practice Set 2

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20 questions+2 marks−0.25 negativeHindi + English

SSC GD Practice Set 3

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20 questions+2 marks−0.25 negativeHindi + English

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SSC GD Constable Practice Set 1

प्रश्न की भाषा / Question language
Questions
20
Duration
Untimed
Marking scheme
+2 for each correct · −0.25 for each wrong

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SSC GD Constable Practice Set 1 — View 20 questions
  1. Question 1

    As 'Carpenter' is related to 'Saw' (worker : his tool), 'Tailor' is related to what?

    1. a. Cloth
    2. b. Needle
    3. c. Shirt
    4. d. Thread

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The relation is worker : his main tool — carpenter–saw, tailor–needle. Cloth is raw material, shirt the finished product and thread an auxiliary — the main tool is only the needle.

  2. Question 2

    Find the odd one out: 3, 5, 7, 9

    1. a. 3
    2. b. 5
    3. c. 7
    4. d. 9

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 3, 5 and 7 are prime numbers, while 9 = 3 × 3 is composite. So 9 does not belong with the group.

  3. Question 3

    Complete the series: 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ?

    1. a. 63
    2. b. 61
    3. c. 65
    4. d. 67

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The differences double: +1, +2, +4, +8, +16 — so the next gap is +32. 33 + 32 = 65. Trap: repeating +16 from 17→33 gives 49 — the rule lives in the differences, not the terms.

  4. Question 4

    In a certain code, CAT is written as DBU. How will DOG be written in the same code?

    1. a. EPH
    2. b. EPI
    3. c. DPH
    4. d. EOH

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (C→D, A→B, T→U). Applying the same rule: D→E, O→P, G→H, giving EPH.

  5. Question 5

    Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the girl related to the man?

    1. a. Sister
    2. b. Mother
    3. c. Daughter
    4. d. Cousin

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The grandfather's only son is the man's own father. The father's daughter is therefore the man's sister.

  6. Question 6

    Which Constitutional Amendment gave Delhi its special 'National Capital Territory' status?

    1. a. 61st Amendment
    2. b. 69th Amendment
    3. c. 73rd Amendment
    4. d. 86th Amendment

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The 69th Amendment (1991) added Articles 239AA/239AB — Delhi became the NCT with its own assembly and council of ministers. The 61st (voting age 18), 73rd (panchayati raj) and 86th (right to education) are famous but Delhi-unrelated — the numeric closeness is the trap.

  7. Question 7

    Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

    1. a. Article 14
    2. b. Article 15
    3. c. Article 17
    4. d. Article 21

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

  8. Question 8

    Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

    1. a. Jawaharlal Nehru
    2. b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    3. c. Sardar Patel
    4. d. Rajendra Prasad

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee of the Constitution and is often called the "Father of the Indian Constitution."

  9. Question 9

    What is the approximately accepted total length of the Ganga river?

    1. a. About 2,525 km
    2. b. About 2,480 km
    3. c. About 2,510 km
    4. d. About 2,600 km

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The accepted total length of the Ganga is about 2,525 km (Gomukh to the Bay of Bengal). The neighbouring figures are old/rounded estimates — one step more precise than a 'which is longest' question.

  10. Question 10

    Which is the second-largest state of India by area?

    1. a. Maharashtra
    2. b. Gujarat
    3. c. Karnataka
    4. d. Madhya Pradesh

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The order is: Rajasthan (1st), Madhya Pradesh (2nd, ~3.08 lakh sq km), Maharashtra (3rd). Everyone remembers the largest (Rajasthan) — the large-state confusion at second place is this question's difficulty.

  11. Question 11

    40% of a number exceeds 25% of the same number by 45. What is the number?

    1. a. 250
    2. b. 300
    3. c. 320
    4. d. 280

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 40% − 25% = 15%, and 15% = 45 by the question. So 1% = 3, and the whole number (100%) = 300. Check: 40% of 300 = 120, 25% = 75, difference = 45.

  12. Question 12

    The average of 3 numbers is 20. Two of them are 15 and 25. What is the third number?

    1. a. 18
    2. b. 22
    3. c. 20
    4. d. 25

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Sum of 3 numbers = 3 × 20 = 60. Third number = 60 − 15 − 25 = 20. Trap: assuming the answer from the first two's average (20) — only the method gives certainty.

  13. Question 13

    If a : b = 2 : 3 and b : c = 4 : 5, find a : c.

    1. a. 6 : 15
    2. b. 8 : 15
    3. c. 2 : 5
    4. d. 4 : 9

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Making b equal in both ratios: a:b = 8:12 and b:c = 12:15 (b = 12 in both). So a:c = 8:15.

  14. Question 14

    What is the simple interest on ₹1000 at 5% per annum for 2 years?

    1. a. ₹50
    2. b. ₹75
    3. c. ₹100
    4. d. ₹150

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Simple Interest = (P × R × T) / 100 = (1000 × 5 × 2) / 100 = ₹100.

  15. Question 15

    An item has a cost price of ₹800 and is sold for ₹920. Find the profit percentage.

    1. a. 10%
    2. b. 12%
    3. c. 15%
    4. d. 20%

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Profit = 920 − 800 = ₹120. Profit% = (120/800) × 100 = 15%.

  16. Question 16

    Choose the correct synonym of the word 'Brave'.

    1. a. Courageous
    2. b. Coward
    3. c. Weak
    4. d. Timid

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'Courageous' means brave/fearless, making it a synonym of 'Brave'.

  17. Question 17

    Choose the correct antonym of the word 'Ancient'.

    1. a. Old
    2. b. Historic
    3. c. Ruined
    4. d. Modern

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'Modern' means contemporary, the opposite of 'Ancient'.

  18. Question 18

    Fill in the blank: 'She ___ to school every day.'

    1. a. go
    2. b. gone
    3. c. going
    4. d. goes

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The subject 'She' is third-person singular, so the verb takes the -s form: 'goes'.

  19. Question 19

    Choose the correctly spelled word.

    1. a. Recieve
    2. b. Receeve
    3. c. Receve
    4. d. Receive

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Following the 'i before e, except after c' rule, the correct spelling is 'Receive'.

  20. Question 20

    'जय' शब्द का विलोम शब्द क्या है?

    1. a. पराजय
    2. b. विजय
    3. c. जीत
    4. d. सफलता

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'जय' का विलोम 'पराजय' है। 'विजय' और 'जीत' जय के ही पर्याय हैं, 'सफलता' निकट अर्थ का शब्द — तीनों समान दिशा के होने से भ्रम होता है।

SSC GD Constable Practice Set 2 — View 20 questions
  1. Question 1

    Ram walks 6 km north from his home, then turns and walks 8 km east. How far is he from his home?

    1. a. 8 km
    2. b. 14 km
    3. c. 12 km
    4. d. 10 km

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: This forms a right triangle with legs 6 km and 8 km. Distance (hypotenuse) = √(6² + 8²) = √100 = 10 km.

  2. Question 2

    Complete the series: B, D, F, H, ?

    1. a. I
    2. b. G
    3. c. K
    4. d. J

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Each term skips one letter of the alphabet (B, D, F, H), so the next letter is J.

  3. Question 3

    Statements: (I) All cats are animals. (II) All animals breathe. Conclusion: All cats breathe. Does the conclusion follow from the statements?

    1. a. Both statements are false
    2. b. The conclusion does not follow
    3. c. Cannot be determined
    4. d. The conclusion follows

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Since all cats are animals and all animals breathe, it logically follows that all cats breathe. The conclusion is valid based on the statements.

  4. Question 4

    20 students are standing in a row. Rahul is 7th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?

    1. a. 13
    2. b. 15
    3. c. 12
    4. d. 14

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Position from the right = Total − Position from the left + 1 = 20 − 7 + 1 = 14.

  5. Question 5

    Find the missing number in the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?

    1. a. 46
    2. b. 50
    3. c. 48
    4. d. 44

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Each term is one less than a perfect square: 2²−1 = 3, 3²−1 = 8, 4²−1 = 15, 5²−1 = 24, 6²−1 = 35 — so the next is 7²−1 = 48. The differences (+5,+7,+9,+11,+13) confirm it. Trap: repeating the last gap +11 gives 46.

  6. Question 6

    Which metal lies at the centre of the chlorophyll molecule?

    1. a. Iron
    2. b. Calcium
    3. c. Potassium
    4. d. Magnesium

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Magnesium (Mg) sits at the centre of chlorophyll's porphyrin ring — the light-absorption core. Iron centres haemoglobin (blood) — the 'coloured biomolecule' parallel is the trap; calcium belongs to bones and potassium to stomatal control, not chlorophyll.

  7. Question 7

    In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?

    1. a. 1935
    2. b. 1947
    3. c. 1950
    4. d. 1969

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India was established on 1 April 1935.

  8. Question 8

    The 'Sattriya' classical dance belongs to which state?

    1. a. Manipur
    2. b. Odisha
    3. c. Assam
    4. d. Kerala

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Sattriya (declared the 8th classical dance in 2000) belongs to Assam's Vaishnavite monasteries (sattras) — the Shankardev tradition. Manipur (Manipuri), Odisha (Odissi) and Kerala (Kathakali/Mohiniyattam) have their own — the north-eastern closeness is the trap.

  9. Question 9

    The Indian Revolt of 1857 first began from which place?

    1. a. Meerut
    2. b. Delhi
    3. c. Kanpur
    4. d. Lucknow

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Revolt of 1857 began at Meerut on 10 May 1857.

  10. Question 10

    In which region is India's Cold Desert located?

    1. a. Ladakh
    2. b. Thar
    3. c. Kutch
    4. d. Deccan

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Ladakh (around Leh, ~3,000 m altitude) is India's Cold Desert — near-zero rainfall, sub-zero temperatures. Thar is the hot desert (picking Thar on hearing 'desert' is the trap); Kutch is a saline marsh and Deccan a plateau.

  11. Question 11

    A train runs at 60 km/h for 2 hours, then at 80 km/h for 1 hour. What is the total distance covered?

    1. a. 180 km
    2. b. 200 km
    3. c. 220 km
    4. d. 240 km

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: First leg: 60 × 2 = 120 km. Second leg: 80 × 1 = 80 km. Total = 120 + 80 = 200 km. Traps: answering from the first leg alone (180) or from the speeds alone.

  12. Question 12

    Which of the following numbers is a prime number?

    1. a. 21
    2. b. 27
    3. c. 29
    4. d. 33

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 29 is divisible only by 1 and itself, making it prime. 21 = 3×7, 27 = 3³, and 33 = 3×11 are not prime.

  13. Question 13

    A can complete a work in 10 days and B can complete the same work in 15 days. If they work together, in how many days will the work be completed?

    1. a. 5
    2. b. 6
    3. c. 7
    4. d. 8

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: A's one-day work = 1/10, B's one-day work = 1/15. Together in one day they do 1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6 of the work. So the work is completed in 6 days.

  14. Question 14

    Simplify: 15 + 5 × 2 − 8 ÷ 4

    1. a. 21
    2. b. 22
    3. c. 23
    4. d. 24

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: By the BODMAS rule: 5 × 2 = 10, 8 ÷ 4 = 2. So 15 + 10 − 2 = 23.

  15. Question 15

    A square has perimeter 36 cm. What is its area?

    1. a. 72 sq cm
    2. b. 64 sq cm
    3. c. 81 sq cm
    4. d. 90 sq cm

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Perimeter = 4 × side ⟹ side = 36/4 = 9 cm. Area = 9² = 81 sq cm. Traps: halving the perimeter, or forgetting to square the side.

  16. Question 16

    इनमें से कौन-सा शब्द 'चंद्रमा' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है?

    1. a. शशि
    2. b. चाँदनी
    3. c. सोम
    4. d. राकेश

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: शशि, सोम और राकेश — तीनों 'चंद्रमा' के पर्यायवाची हैं। 'चाँदनी' का अर्थ है चंद्रमा का प्रकाश (moonlight) — चंद्रमा से संबंधित होते हुए भी उसका पर्याय नहीं। इसीलिए उत्तर 'चाँदनी' है।

  17. Question 17

    Choose the correct one-word substitution for: 'A person who studies birds'

    1. a. Ornithologist
    2. b. Botanist
    3. c. Zoologist
    4. d. Astrologer

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: An 'Ornithologist' is a person who studies birds.

  18. Question 18

    मुहावरा 'आँख का तारा होना' का सही अर्थ चुनें।

    1. a. क्रोधित होना
    2. b. बहुत प्रिय होना
    3. c. चिंतित होना
    4. d. उदास होना

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: मुहावरा 'आँख का तारा होना' का अर्थ है 'बहुत प्रिय होना'।

  19. Question 19

    Which part of speech is the word 'beautifully' in the sentence: 'She sings beautifully.'?

    1. a. Adjective
    2. b. Adverb
    3. c. Noun
    4. d. Verb

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'Beautifully' describes how she sings, so it is an adverb.

  20. Question 20

    'शिक्षक' शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग (feminine form) क्या है?

    1. a. शिक्षिका
    2. b. शिक्षकी
    3. c. शिक्षकानी
    4. d. शिक्षकिन

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'शिक्षक' का स्त्रीलिंग रूप 'शिक्षिका' होता है।

SSC GD Practice Set 3 — View 20 questions
  1. Question 1

    As 'Dog' is related to 'Barking' (animal : its cry), 'Horse' is related to what?

    1. a. Bleating
    2. b. Neighing
    3. c. Trumpeting
    4. d. Roaring

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The relation is animal : its cry — dog–barking, horse–neighing. Bleating belongs to the goat, trumpeting to the elephant and roaring to the lion — all near-class traps.

  2. Question 2

    One of these numbers breaks the fixed rule. Choose the different number: 25, 50, 49, 81

    1. a. 25
    2. b. 50
    3. c. 49
    4. d. 81

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 25 = 5², 49 = 7², 81 = 9² — three perfect squares. 50 is not the square of any integer (7² = 49, 8² = 64), so 50 is the different one.

  3. Question 3

    Complete the series: 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, ?

    1. a. 20
    2. b. 21
    3. c. 22
    4. d. 24

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The successive differences grow: +1, +2, +3, +4, +5 — so the next gap is +6. 16 + 6 = 22. Trap: repeating the last gap +5 gives 21 — the rule is in the order of the differences.

  4. Question 4

    In a certain code, GOOD is written as HPPE. How will BAD be written in that code?

    1. a. CBD
    2. b. DCF
    3. c. CCE
    4. d. CBE

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (G→H, O→P, O→P, D→E); applying the same rule, B→C, A→B, D→E, so BAD → CBE.

  5. Question 5

    A is the father of B. B is the brother of C. D is the mother of C. How is A related to D?

    1. a. Husband
    2. b. Father
    3. c. Brother
    4. d. Son

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: B and C are the children of A and D (A is the father, D is the mother); so A is D's husband.

  6. Question 6

    Before the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978), on which additional ground could a National Emergency (Article 352) be imposed?

    1. a. Internal disturbance
    2. b. Armed rebellion
    3. c. War
    4. d. External aggression

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The 1975 Emergency was imposed on 'internal disturbance' grounds — the 44th Amendment removed that very phrase and put 'armed rebellion' so it could not be misused. War and external aggression were grounds before and remain so — only the 'internal' ground changed.

  7. Question 7

    Which is the major saffron-producing region of India?

    1. a. Kerala
    2. b. Jammu & Kashmir
    3. c. Tamil Nadu
    4. d. Assam

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Saffron grows chiefly around Pampore (Pulwama) in Kashmir — cold climate and karewa soil. Kerala is famous for spices (pepper, cardamom), not saffron — the 'spice = Kerala' generalisation is the trap.

  8. Question 8

    The slogan 'Do or Die' (करो या मरो) is associated with which movement?

    1. a. Non-Cooperation Movement
    2. b. Civil Disobedience Movement
    3. c. Khilafat Movement
    4. d. Quit India Movement

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: On 8 August 1942 at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, Gandhiji gave the 'Do or Die' call launching Quit India. Non-Cooperation (1920), Civil Disobedience (1930) and Khilafat have their own slogans/years — the movement timeline is what this tests.

  9. Question 9

    In plants, the water absorbed by roots is transported to other parts through which tissue?

    1. a. Xylem
    2. b. Kidney
    3. c. Phloem
    4. d. Liver

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Xylem tissue transports water and minerals absorbed by the roots to other parts of the plant, while phloem transports food.

  10. Question 10

    In which year was the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) established?

    1. a. 1935
    2. b. 1947
    3. c. 1991
    4. d. 1875

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) was established in 1875 and is Asia's oldest stock exchange.

  11. Question 11

    25% of a number exceeds 20% of the same number by 12. What is the number?

    1. a. 240
    2. b. 200
    3. c. 220
    4. d. 260

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 25% − 20% = 5%, and 5% = 12 by the question. So 1% = 12/5 = 2.4, and the whole number (100%) = 240. Check: 25% of 240 = 60, 20% = 48, difference = 12.

  12. Question 12

    The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 14. What is the largest of them?

    1. a. 16
    2. b. 20
    3. c. 18
    4. d. 22

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: For an odd count of consecutive terms the average is the middle term — here the third term, 14. So the numbers are 10, 12, 14, 16, 18 — the largest is 18. Trap: mistaking the average for the largest.

  13. Question 13

    The product of two numbers is 240 and their HCF is 4. What is their LCM?

    1. a. 40
    2. b. 80
    3. c. 100
    4. d. 60

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: For any two numbers, product = HCF × LCM; so LCM = 240/4 = 60.

  14. Question 14

    A shopkeeper gives a 10% discount on an item worth ₹500. What is the selling price after the discount?

    1. a. 400
    2. b. 450
    3. c. 480
    4. d. 470

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Discount = 10% of 500 = 50; selling price = 500 − 50 = ₹450.

  15. Question 15

    A boat's speed in still water is 8 km/h and the stream flows at 2 km/h. How far will the boat go downstream in 3 hours?

    1. a. 24 km
    2. b. 28 km
    3. c. 30 km
    4. d. 32 km

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Downstream effective speed = boat + stream = 8 + 2 = 10 km/h. Distance = 10 × 3 = 30 km. Traps: subtracting the stream (upstream, 18 km), or ignoring the stream (24 km).

  16. Question 16

    Fill in the blank with the correct option: 'She is good ___ mathematics.'

    1. a. in
    2. b. at
    3. c. on
    4. d. with

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'Good at' is the correct idiomatic usage for being skilled in a subject.

  17. Question 17

    'सूर्योदय' शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद क्या है?

    1. a. सूर + उदय
    2. b. सूर्यो + दय
    3. c. सूर्य + उदय
    4. d. सूर्य + योदय

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'सूर्य' + 'उदय' में गुण संधि (अ + उ = ओ) होने से 'सूर्योदय' बनता है।

  18. Question 18

    Choose the correct option: 'By next year, I ___ my graduation.'

    1. a. completed
    2. b. am completing
    3. c. will complete
    4. d. will have completed

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: For an action that will be completed before a future point in time, the Future Perfect Tense ('will have completed') is correct.

  19. Question 19

    'राजपुत्र' शब्द में कौन-सा समास है?

    1. a. द्वंद्व समास
    2. b. बहुव्रीहि समास
    3. c. तत्पुरुष समास
    4. d. अव्ययीभाव समास

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'राजपुत्र' अर्थात 'राजा का पुत्र' — विभक्ति के लोप के साथ बना यह तत्पुरुष समास है।

  20. Question 20

    Choose the correct improvement for the sentence: 'He don't like tea.'

    1. a. He doesn't like tea.
    2. b. He not like tea.
    3. c. He didn't likes tea.
    4. d. He isn't like tea.

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: With third-person singular ('He') in the present tense, the auxiliary verb 'doesn't' is used, not 'don't'.

Full exam pattern

SSC GD Constable has 80 questions worth 160 marks. The section-wise split is below.

SectionQuestionsMarks
General Intelligence & Reasoning2040
General Knowledge & General Awareness2040
Elementary Mathematics2040
Hindi/English Language2040
Total80160

Verified against Clause 7.2 of the official notification — last checked on 1 August 2026.

Syllabus at a glance

View full syllabus
  • General Intelligence & Reasoning
  • General Knowledge & General Awareness
  • Elementary Mathematics
  • Hindi/English Language

Instructions

  • This test is completely free and anonymous — no login required.
  • Each correct answer earns 2 marks; each wrong answer deducts 0.25 marks.
  • You can switch between Hindi and English at any time — Hindi/English language-section questions always stay in their own language, as on the real paper.
  • Your progress is not saved — reloading the page restarts the test.
  • After submitting, you'll see section-wise accuracy and a full explanation for every question.

Remember on the real exam day

SSC GD is a computer-based exam — this practice set uses the same on-screen controls.

  • Press "Save & Next" after every answer — selecting an option alone doesn't save it.
  • Read the question palette's colours: green is answered, purple is marked for review, red is skipped — try to clear red before submitting.
  • The on-screen timer is the only one that counts — pace yourself against it, not a personal watch.
  • Don't hit browser back or refresh — on the real exam this can interrupt your session.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are in the SSC GD Constable mock test?

The full SSC GD exam has 80 questions worth 160 marks in total. This practice set is a shorter sample built on the same pattern.

Is there negative marking in SSC GD?

Yes, 0.25 marks are deducted for every wrong answer, while each correct answer earns 2 marks.

What is the exam duration for SSC GD?

The full exam allows 60 minutes. This practice set is untimed so you can practise without pressure.

Is this test free, and do I need to log in?

Yes, this test is completely free and fully anonymous — no login, no sign-up, and nothing is saved.

Can I take this test in both Hindi and English?

Yes, the language toggle inside the test lets you switch between Hindi and English at any time.

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