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SSC GD Constable Previous Year Question Paper 2026

This is the solved previous year question paper for the real SSC GD Constable exam held on 20 February 2025, Shift 1, with 80 questions. Attempt it in 60 minutes — it awards 2 marks for every correct answer, and deducts 0.25 marks for every wrong answer. Every answer is verified from candidate recall and comes with a full explanation below.

80 questions160 marks60 min−0.25 negativeComputer based (CBT)

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SSC GD Constable Previous Paper — 20 February 2025, Shift 1 (Hindi Medium)

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20 February 2025 · Shift 1 · Hindi medium

80 questions60 min+2 marks−0.25 negativeHindi + English

SSC GD Constable Previous Paper — 20 February 2025, Shift 1 (English Medium)

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20 February 2025 · Shift 1 · English medium

80 questions60 min+2 marks−0.25 negativeHindi + English

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SSC GD Constable Previous Paper — 20 February 2025, Shift 1 (Hindi Medium)

प्रश्न की भाषा / Question language
Questions
80
Duration
60 minutes
Marking scheme
+2 for each correct · −0.25 for each wrong

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All questions, options & explanations

Before or after attempting the paper above — read every question, its correct answer and a full explanation here.

SSC GD Constable Previous Paper — 20 February 2025, Shift 1 (Hindi Medium) — View 80 questions
  1. Question 1

    A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively in the directions shown and is then punched after the last fold. How would the paper look when unfolded?Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: A single punch through the doubly-folded sheet produces four symmetrical holes when fully unfolded. As the punch sits near the vertical fold line, unfolding mirrors it into a horizontally aligned pair of circles; the second (horizontal) fold mirrors it again, giving two such pairs.

  2. Question 2

    Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The number of horizontal lines increases by 2 each step (2, 4, 6, 8), so the fifth figure needs 10 lines. The open box alternates in pairs - facing down for two terms, then up for two - so the fifth term opens downward again. This is option 2.

  3. Question 3

    Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will logically complete the series. _JDIF_EJGL_KHMG_INH_

    1. a. CKELO
    2. b. CIEKO
    3. c. EKFLM
    4. d. EIFKM

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Splitting into four-letter groups: E J D I / F K E J / G L F K / H M G L / I N H M. Inside every group the letters advance by +5, −6, +5, and each group begins one letter (+1) after the previous group. Blanks take E, K, F, L, M, so the answer is EKFLM.

  4. Question 4

    In a certain code language, 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter of B', 'A − B' means 'A is the brother of B', 'A × B' means 'A is the wife of B' and 'A + B' means 'A is the father of B'. Based on the above, how is P related to T if 'P ÷ Q − R + S × T'?

    1. a. Father's brother's wife
    2. b. Wife's father's brother's wife
    3. c. Wife's father's brother's daughter
    4. d. Father's brother's daughter

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: T's wife is S (S × T). S's father is R (R + S). R's brother is Q (Q − R). Q's daughter is P (P ÷ Q). Hence P is the daughter of the brother of T's wife's father.

  5. Question 5

    In a certain code language, 'RUST' is coded as '8264' and 'TURN' is coded as '2843'. How is 'S' coded in the given language?

    1. a. 8
    2. b. 4
    3. c. 2
    4. d. 6

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Comparing RUST (8264) and TURN (2843), the common letters R, U, T map to 8, 2, 4 respectively. The remaining letter of RUST is S, which maps to 6.

  6. Question 6

    MRCS is related to PUFV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VOLG is related to YROJ. To which of the given options is SHIM related, following the same logic?

    1. a. VLEJ
    2. b. VELJ
    3. c. VKLP
    4. d. VLKP

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: In both MRCS → PUFV and VOLG → YROJ every letter moves +3 places along the alphabet. Applying the same rule to SHIM: S→V, H→K, I→L, M→P, giving VKLP.

  7. Question 7

    If each letter of the word DELIGHT is arranged in the English alphabetical order, how many letters will remain in the same position?

    1. a. Three
    2. b. Two
    3. c. Four
    4. d. One

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Original: D E L I G H T. Alphabetical: D E G H I L T. Comparing positions, the 1st (D), 2nd (E) and 7th (T) letters stay in place - three letters in total.

  8. Question 8

    Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Figure (X) consists of three dotted circles joined by Y-shaped lines, with two arrows extending outward from the junction. This exact arrangement appears unrotated in option 1; the other options lack dots on the circles, use squares, or join the elements differently.

  9. Question 9

    RFTQ is related to VKXV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, DNPJ is related to HSTO. To which of the given options is HLXB related, following the same logic?

    1. a. EOLA
    2. b. NOQX
    3. c. LEPV
    4. d. LQBG

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Both known pairs shift by +4, +5, +4, +5 (R+4=V, F+5=K, T+4=X, Q+5=V). For HLXB: H+4=L, L+5=Q, X+4=B (wrapping past Z, A), B+5=G, giving LQBG.

  10. Question 10

    Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All bins are tins. Some pins are fins. All fins are tins. Conclusions: (I): All pins are tins. (II): Some bins are fins.

    1. a. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
    2. b. Only conclusion (I) follows.
    3. c. Only conclusion (II) follows.
    4. d. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: No relationship between bins and fins is given, so 'some bins are fins' is uncertain and conclusion (II) does not follow. Only some pins are fins (and hence tins); all pins being tins is not guaranteed, so conclusion (I) also fails. Neither conclusion follows.

  11. Question 11

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 21 75 120 156 183 ?

    1. a. 201
    2. b. 213
    3. c. 226
    4. d. 219

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Successive differences are 54, 45, 36, 27 - each 9 less than the previous (decreasing multiples of 9). The next difference is 18, so the missing term = 183 + 18 = 201.

  12. Question 12

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 120, 361, 1084, 3253, 9760, ?

    1. a. 27281
    2. b. 28281
    3. c. 26281
    4. d. 29281

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Each term = previous term × 3 + 1. E.g. 120×3+1=361, 361×3+1=1084, 1084×3+1=3253, 3253×3+1=9760. Next term = 9760×3+1 = 29281.

  13. Question 13

    What will come in the place of the question mark '(?)' in the following equation, if '-' and '÷' are interchanged and '×' and '+' are interchanged? 9 + 56 − 8 × 4 ÷ 9 = ?

    1. a. 56
    2. b. 57
    3. c. 58
    4. d. 59

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: After swapping, the equation becomes: 9 × 56 ÷ 8 + 4 − 9. By BODMAS: 56 ÷ 8 = 7, then 9 × 7 = 63; 63 + 4 = 67; 67 − 9 = 58.

  14. Question 14

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? ICD MGH QKL UOP ?

    1. a. VRQ
    2. b. YST
    3. c. NOP
    4. d. NPO

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: In each column the letters advance by +4: I→M→Q→U→Y, C→G→K→O→S, D→H→L→P→T. The missing group is YST.

  15. Question 15

    Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Kings, Queens, Fathers

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Some kings are also fathers, so the circles for 'kings' and 'fathers' intersect. 'Queens' form a female class that can belong to neither male category, so its circle stays completely separate. Only option 3 shows this arrangement.

  16. Question 16

    Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.) NVD, IOY, JRZ, PXF

    1. a. NVD
    2. b. IOY
    3. c. JRZ
    4. d. PXF

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: NVD: N+8=V, V+8=D; JRZ: J+8=R, R+8=Z; PXF: P+8=X, X+8=F - in all three the letters are spaced +8 apart. But in IOY, I+6=O and O+10=Y, so it breaks the pattern.

  17. Question 17

    In a certain code language, 'KIXCUP' is coded as '10' and 'DZYM' is coded as '8'. What is the code for 'RSAWYQI' in the given code language?

    1. a. 9
    2. b. 11
    3. c. 13
    4. d. 6

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Code = (number of letters in the word) + 4. KIXCUP (6 letters) → 10; DZYM (4 letters) → 8. RSAWYQI has 7 letters, so its code = 7 + 4 = 11.

  18. Question 18

    A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The sheet is first folded bottom-up and then right-to-left, leaving the top-left quarter. A vertical circle-rectangle-circle stack is cut near its outer (left) edge. Unfolding mirrors the cut once across the vertical fold (so it also appears near the right edge) and once across the horizontal fold (so it repeats in the bottom half) - four corner stacks of circle-rectangle-circle, as in option 3.

  19. Question 19

    Seven people, G, H, I, J, K, L and M, are sitting in a row, facing north (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two people sit between M and I. Only K sits to the right of J. Only one person sits between I and J. G sits at some place to the right of L but at some place to the left of H. How many people sit between H and L?

    1. a. Two
    2. b. Four
    3. c. Three
    4. d. One

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Only K is right of J → J=6, K=7. One person between I and J → I=4. Two between M and I → M=1. Remaining seats 2, 3, 5 hold L, G, H; G right of L and left of H → L=2, G=3, H=5. Row: M L G I H J K. Between H (seat 5) and L (seat 2) sit G and I - 2 people.

  20. Question 20

    Seven people, E, F, G, H, K, L and N, are sitting in a row facing north (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two people sit to the right of K. Only two people sit between K and F. Only two people sit between E and H. H sits to the immediate left of K. N sits to the immediate right of L. How many people sit between G and L?

    1. a. One
    2. b. Three
    3. c. Two
    4. d. Four

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Two people right of K → K=5. H immediately left of K → H=4. Two between K and F → F=2. Among remaining seats 1, 3, 6, 7 the consecutive pair for L, N is only (6, 7) → L=6, N=7. Two between E and H → E=1 (E=7 leaves only seat 3 for the pair, impossible). So G=3. Row: E G F H K L N. Between G (3) and L (6) sit H and K - 2 people.

  21. Question 21

    Who is the Principal Secretary to PM Modi as of September 2024?

    1. a. Manoj Gupta
    2. b. Shivshankar Menon
    3. c. PK Mishra
    4. d. Kataragama Menon

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Dr. P. K. Mishra, a retired IAS officer of the 1967 batch, has been serving as Principal Secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi since 2019 and continued in the post as of September 2024.

  22. Question 22

    Name the Indian music composer of songs for the film 'Slumdog Millionaire'.

    1. a. Santosh Narayanan
    2. b. Pritam Chakraborty
    3. c. Amit Trivedi
    4. d. AR Rahman

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: A. R. Rahman composed the music for Slumdog Millionaire (2008) and won two Academy Awards for it - Best Original Score and Best Original Song ('Jai Ho').

  23. Question 23

    As per Census 2011, what was the child sex ratio of India?

    1. a. 945
    2. b. 940
    3. c. 927
    4. d. 919

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Census 2011 puts India's child sex ratio (0-6 years) at 919 girls per 1,000 boys. The overall sex ratio, 943, appears among the options as a distractor.

  24. Question 24

    Which Five-Year Plan aimed at making India self-reliant and focused on 'Defense and Development' due to external aggression and economic constraints?

    1. a. Third Plan
    2. b. Fourth Plan
    3. c. Sixth Plan
    4. d. Seventh Plan

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) aimed at building a self-reliant economy. After the Chinese aggression of 1962 its emphasis shifted to 'Defense and Development'.

  25. Question 25

    The Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) is a/ an _______ character code for identifying the bank and branch in which an account is held.

    1. a. Eight
    2. b. Fifteen
    3. c. Eleven
    4. d. Thirteen

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: IFSC is an 11-character code: the first 4 characters identify the bank, the 5th character (usually 0) denotes the control office, and the last 6 characters identify the branch. It is used in electronic fund transfers (NEFT/RTGS).

  26. Question 26

    Under which Articles of the Indian Constitution are the Fundamental Rights enshrined?

    1. a. Articles 10-32
    2. b. Articles 12-35
    3. c. Articles 14-24
    4. d. Articles 18-45

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Fundamental Rights appear in Part III of the Constitution, Articles 12 to 35 - equality (14-18), freedom (19-22), against exploitation (23-24), freedom of religion (25-28), cultural and educational rights (29-30), constitutional remedies (32-35).

  27. Question 27

    Which country won the 4th Asian Kho-Kho Championship 2023 event in the women's category?

    1. a. India
    2. b. Indonesia
    3. c. South Korea
    4. d. Iran

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: India won both the men's and women's titles at the 4th Asian Kho-Kho Championship held in Guwahati, Assam in 2023.

  28. Question 28

    Who was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in October 2024?

    1. a. Shah Rukh Khan
    2. b. Amitabh Bachchan
    3. c. Rajinikanth
    4. d. Mithun Chakraborty

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Veteran actor Mithun Chakraborty was conferred the Dadasaheb Phalke Award - Indian cinema's highest honour - at the 70th National Film Awards ceremony in October 2024.

  29. Question 29

    According to the Constitution of India, what is the maximum tenure of the election commissioner of India?

    1. a. Eight years
    2. b. Three years
    3. c. Five years
    4. d. Six years

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners hold office for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. They vacate office in the same manner as judges of the Supreme Court.

  30. Question 30

    Who among the following founded the Abhinav Bharat Mandir (Young India Society)?

    1. a. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and Ganesh Damodar Savarkar
    2. b. BR Ambedkar and C Rajagopalachari
    3. c. Aurobindo Ghosh and Dadabhai Naoroji
    4. d. Motilal Nehru and CR Das

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Abhinav Bharat Society was founded in 1904 at Nashik by V. D. Savarkar along with his elder brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar, with the aim of achieving independence through armed revolution.

  31. Question 31

    Konark festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

    1. a. Odisha
    2. b. Manipur
    3. c. Andhra Pradesh
    4. d. Kerala

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Konark Dance Festival is held every December in the premises of the Konark Sun Temple in Odisha, featuring classical and folk dancers from across India.

  32. Question 32

    To which of the following Indian states does Mohiniattam classical dance form belong?

    1. a. Andhra Pradesh
    2. b. Karnataka
    3. c. Maharashtra
    4. d. Kerala

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Mohiniattam is the classical dance of Kerala; its name derives from 'Mohini' (the enchantress). Its music tradition is called Sopanam and it developed parallel to Kathakali.

  33. Question 33

    In which year was Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana launched by the government of India?

    1. a. 2020
    2. b. 2019
    3. c. 2018
    4. d. 2017

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Launched in October 2020, Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana has the government subsidise the employer's PF/EPS contribution for employees who lost jobs during COVID-19 and for new hires.

  34. Question 34

    From where does the river Indus enter India?

    1. a. Kashmir valley
    2. b. It does not flow in India.
    3. c. Gilgit
    4. d. Ladakh

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Rising near Lake Manasarovar in Tibet, the Indus enters India in Ladakh near Demchok and then flows through Gilgit-Baltistan into Pakistan.

  35. Question 35

    Select the correct sequence of materials put one after the other as per the order of element, compound, and homogeneous mixture.

    1. a. Salt, iron and sea water
    2. b. Mercury, iron, and diluted acid
    3. c. Mercury, salt and milk
    4. d. Iron, methane and sea water

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Iron is an element (Fe), methane a compound (CH₄ - chemically bonded C and H), and sea water a homogeneous mixture (dissolved salt uniform throughout). The sequences in other options do not match these categories.

  36. Question 36

    Gadgil formula is concerned with:

    1. a. distribution of natural resources to the states
    2. b. distribution of Central Assistance among the state
    3. c. distribution of subsidies
    4. d. distribution of foreign investments

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Formulated in 1969 by the working group headed by Planning Commission Deputy Chairman D. R. Gadgil, the formula distributed plan assistance among states on criteria of population (60%), per-capita income, tax effort and major problems.

  37. Question 37

    What is the concept of ecological niche?

    1. a. Ecological niche refers to a species' specific role in an ecosystem.
    2. b. Ecological niche is solely determined by an organism's habitat.
    3. c. Ecological niche refers to the genetic diversity within a species.
    4. d. Ecological niche refers to the physical space a species occupies.

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: An ecological niche is the full functional role and position a species occupies in its ecosystem - covering food, habitat and competition; it goes beyond mere physical habitat.

  38. Question 38

    In which tournament in 2018 did Neeraj Chopra become the first Indian javelin thrower to win a gold medal?

    1. a. World Championships
    2. b. Olympic Games
    3. c. Asian Games
    4. d. Asian U20 Championships

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Neeraj Chopra won javelin gold at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games, becoming the first Indian to do so. (He also won gold at that year's Commonwealth Games.)

  39. Question 39

    Which Iranian-origin group was known in Indian sources as Shaka-Pahlava?

    1. a. Kushanas
    2. b. Parthians
    3. c. Indo-Greeks
    4. d. Shakas

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The Parthians (Pahlavas) came to India from Iran; Indian sources club them with the Shakas as 'Shaka-Pahlava'. They ruled Punjab in the 1st century CE; Gondophernes was their famous ruler.

  40. Question 40

    Saroja Vaidyanathan, the recipient of Padma Shri in 2002 and Padma Bhushan in 2013 is a dancer of which classical dance form?

    1. a. Bharatanatyam
    2. b. Kathak
    3. c. Manipuri
    4. d. Odissi

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Saroja Vaidyanathan was an acclaimed Bharatanatyam dancer and guru who founded Ganesa Natyalaya in Delhi; she received the Padma Shri in 2002 and Padma Bhushan in 2013.

  41. Question 41

    The average weight of Mukund, Sachin and Chetan is 46 kg. If the average weight of Mukund and Sachin be 39 kg and that of Sachin and Chetan be 45 kg, then the weight of Sachin (in kg) is:

    1. a. 50
    2. b. 45
    3. c. 40
    4. d. 30

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: M + S + C = 46 × 3 = 138; M + S = 78; S + C = 90. So S = (M + S) + (S + C) − (M + S + C) = 78 + 90 − 138 = 30 kg.

  42. Question 42

    The LCM of 42, 36, 312 and 126 is:

    1. a. 6587
    2. b. 6616
    3. c. 6520
    4. d. 6552

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Prime factors: 42 = 2×3×7, 36 = 2²×3², 312 = 2³×3×13, 126 = 2×3²×7. LCM takes highest powers = 2³ × 3² × 7 × 13 = 8 × 9 × 91 = 6552.

  43. Question 43

    A bus covers a distance of 30 km in 45 minutes and further it covers double the distance covered earlier in 60 minutes. The average speed of the bus is ______ km/hr (rounded off to two decimal places).

    1. a. 51.43
    2. b. 55.41
    3. c. 54.31
    4. d. 53.14

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Total distance = 30 + 60 = 90 km. Total time = 45 + 60 = 105 min = 1.75 hours. Average speed = 90 ÷ 1.75 ≈ 51.43 km/hr.

  44. Question 44

    What is the highest number between 5000 and 5500, which when divided by 12, 16 and 24, would leave a remainder 9?

    1. a. 5184
    2. b. 5148
    3. c. 5814
    4. d. 5481

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: LCM(12, 16, 24) = 48. Largest multiple of 48 below 5500 = 48 × 114 = 5472. Adding the required remainder 9 gives 5472 + 9 = 5481.

  45. Question 45

    The marked price of an article is 30% above the cost price, and the article is sold at 10% less than the marked price. The profit percentage is:

    1. a. 15%
    2. b. 19%
    3. c. 13%
    4. d. 17%

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Let CP = 100. Then MP = 130. SP = MP − 10% = 130 − 13 = 117. Profit % = 117 − 100 = 17%.

  46. Question 46

    Evaluate: 32 ÷ 8 × 3 − 3 × 4

    1. a. 0
    2. b. 2
    3. c. 3
    4. d. -1

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: By BODMAS: (32 ÷ 8) × 3 − 3 × 4 = 4 × 3 − 12 = 12 − 12 = 0.

  47. Question 47

    Kanchan bought a ring and sold it to Mohan at a profit of 5%. Mohan sold it to Pramod at a loss of 25%. If Pramod paid ₹3150, then the cost price (in ₹) of the ring Kanchan bought is:

    1. a. 4000
    2. b. 3750
    3. c. 3800
    4. d. 4150

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: CP × 1.05 × 0.75 = 3150. Hence CP = 3150 ÷ 0.7875 = ₹4000.

  48. Question 48

    The simple interest on a principal amount (in ₹) is ₹177 for a period of 5 years at the rate of 2% per annum. The principal amount (in ₹) is:

    1. a. 1764
    2. b. 1773
    3. c. 1771
    4. d. 1770

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: SI = P × R × T ÷ 100. So 177 = P × 2 × 5 ÷ 100, giving P = 177 × 10 = ₹1770.

  49. Question 49

    The first and second numbers are, respectively, 35% and 45% less than the third number. The second number is what percentage of the first number?

    1. a. 64 7/12 %
    2. b. 79 2/19 %
    3. c. 68 9/16 %
    4. d. 84 8/13 %

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Take the third number as 100. First = 65, Second = 55. Required percentage = 55 ÷ 65 × 100 = 1100/13 = 84 8/13 %.

  50. Question 50

    The LCM of 40, 20, 195 and 160 is:

    1. a. 6169
    2. b. 6319
    3. c. 6240
    4. d. 6219

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 40 = 2³×5, 20 = 2²×5, 160 = 2⁵×5, 195 = 3×5×13. LCM = 2⁵ × 3 × 5 × 13 = 32 × 195 = 6240.

  51. Question 51

    A pipe can fill a water tank in 36 minutes, and another can fill it in 48 minutes, but a third pipe can empty it in 18 minutes. The first two pipes are kept open for 16 minutes at the beginning, and then the third pipe is also opened. How long does it take to empty the tank?

    1. a. 85 minutes
    2. b. 112 minutes
    3. c. 120 minutes
    4. d. 98 minutes

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Tank capacity = LCM(36, 48, 18) = 144 units. Rates: A = +4, B = +3, C = −8 units/min. In 16 minutes A+B filled 7 × 16 = 112 units. With all three open the net rate = 4 + 3 − 8 = −1, so emptying takes 112 minutes.

  52. Question 52

    Veer has ₹1617 with him. He divided it amongst his sons Nitin and Pravin and asked them to invest it at 10% rate of interest compounded annually. It was seen that Nitin and Pravin got same amount after 16 and 17 years respectively. How much (in ₹) did Veer give to Nitin?

    1. a. 847
    2. b. 697
    3. c. 870
    4. d. 770

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: N × (1.1)¹⁶ = P × (1.1)¹⁷ → N/P = 1.1 = 11/10. Nitin’s share = 11/21 × 1617 = ₹847.

  53. Question 53

    Ravi travels from City A to City B. If Ravi drives his car at 2/3 of his normal speed, then he reaches City B 47 minutes late. Find the time (in minutes) that Ravi would have taken to travel from City A to City B if he drove at his normal speed.

    1. a. 100
    2. b. 94
    3. c. 84
    4. d. 102

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Time is inversely proportional to speed: at 2/3 speed the new time = 3/2 × normal time. Extra time = 1/2 × normal time = 47 min, so normal time = 94 minutes.

  54. Question 54

    Find the volume of a cylinder with radius of base 7 cm and height 10.2 cm. (Use π = 22/7).

    1. a. 1570.8 cm³
    2. b. 1573.8 cm³
    3. c. 1572.8 cm³
    4. d. 1571.8 cm³

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Volume of a cylinder = πr²h = (22/7) × 49 × 10.2 = 22 × 7 × 10.2 = 154 × 10.2 = 1570.8 cm³.

  55. Question 55

    The price (per litre) of petrol increases by 80%. By what percent should its consumption be reduced such that the expenditure on it increases by 17% only?

    1. a. 66%
    2. b. 65%
    3. c. 35%
    4. d. 48%

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Old price = 100, consumption = 100 → expenditure = 10000. New price = 180, new expenditure = 11700 → new consumption = 11700/180 = 65. Reduction = 100 − 65 = 35%.

  56. Question 56

    Find the mean proportion of 5.76 and 0.88. (rounded off to two decimal places)

    1. a. 2.25
    2. b. 2.85
    3. c. 2.54
    4. d. 2.34

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Mean proportion = √(5.76 × 0.88) = √5.0688 ≈ 2.2514 ≈ 2.25.

  57. Question 57

    A retailer offers a discount scheme where customers receive a 10% discount on purchases between ₹1,000 and ₹5,000, and a 20% discount on purchases above ₹5,000. If a customer buys goods worth ₹6,000, how much will they save (in ₹) compared to the original price?

    1. a. 1,000
    2. b. 1,100
    3. c. 1,200
    4. d. 1,300

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The purchase is ₹6,000 (above ₹5,000), so the full amount gets the 20% discount. Savings = 20% of 6000 = ₹1200.

  58. Question 58

    The rate of advertisement on a TV channel is directly proportional to the duration of the advertisement. If the rate of an advertisement of 20 seconds is ₹1,25,000, then the rate of an advertisement of 25 seconds will be

    1. a. 1,55,620
    2. b. 1,65,250
    3. c. 1,56,250
    4. d. 1,62,550

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Rate per second = 125000 ÷ 20 = 6250. For 25 seconds: 6250 × 25 = ₹156250.

  59. Question 59

    Five persons in a group have salaries of ₹15,000, ₹25,000, ₹30,000, ₹12,000 and ₹18,000, respectively. What is the average salary (in ₹) per person of the group?

    1. a. 18,000
    2. b. 20,000
    3. c. 21,000
    4. d. 19,000

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Sum = 15000 + 25000 + 30000 + 12000 + 18000 = 100000. Average = 100000 ÷ 5 = ₹20000.

  60. Question 60

    Rodney has two grandsons Amit and Gopal. 11 year old Amit gets some money from Rodney's wealth and 12 year old Gopal gets rest of the money. But Amit and Gopal will get money only when they turn 23 years old. Till then the money is in a bank getting interest at rate 10% compounded annually. When both turn 23, they receive the same amount. How much had Rodney given Gopal (in ₹) initially, if total money with Rodney was ₹23100?

    1. a. 12450
    2. b. 11000
    3. c. 12100
    4. d. 10750

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Amit's money grows for 12 years, Gopal's for 11 years: A × (1.1)¹² = G × (1.1)¹¹ → G/A = 1.1 = 11/10. Gopal's share = 11/21 × 23100 = ₹12100.

  61. Question 61

    'नीरद' पर्याय है-

    1. a. सरस्वती का
    2. b. विष्णु का
    3. c. बादल का
    4. d. कमल का

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'नीरद' का अर्थ है 'जल देने वाला' (नीर + द), जो बादल का पर्यायवाची है। बादल के अन्य पर्यायवाची - मेघ, घट, जलधर आदि हैं।

  62. Question 62

    'जब मदारी डमरू बजा रहा था तब बन्दर नाच रहा था।' निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से इस वाक्य के लिए कौन सा एक उचित संयुक्त वाक्य होगा?

    1. a. बन्दर नाच रहा था, मदारी डमरू बजा रहा था।
    2. b. जब मदारी के डमरू पर बन्दर नाच रहा था।
    3. c. मदारी डमरू बजा रहा था बन्दर नाच रहा था।
    4. d. जब मदारी डमरू बजा रहा था और बन्दर नाच रहा था।

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: संयुक्त वाक्य में दो स्वतंत्र उपवाक्य 'और' जैसे योजक से जुड़ते हैं। विकल्प 4 में 'और' से दोनों क्रियाएँ जुड़ी हैं; 'जब...तब' वाली संरचना मिश्र (जटिल) वाक्य बनाती है, संयुक्त नहीं।

  63. Question 63

    निम्नलिखित वाक्य को विदेशज शब्द के माध्यम से पूर्ण करें। साहब ने सभी हवलदारों की अच्छी परेड करवाई।

    1. a. पट्टिका
    2. b. आश्विन
    3. c. कमिश्नर
    4. d. अक्षवाट

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'कमिश्नर' अंग्रेज़ी Commissioner से आया विदेशज शब्द है। पट्टिका, आश्विन तथा अक्षवाट तत्सम शब्द हैं।

  64. Question 64

    मुहावरे और उसके अर्थ के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें। अकड़ दिखाना

    1. a. घमंड कराना
    2. b. अकड़ कर खड़े रहना
    3. c. घमंड करना
    4. d. शरीर कड़ा करना

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'अकड़ दिखाना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है घमंड या अहंकार प्रकट करना, जैसे - 'अपनी दौलत का वह बहुत अकड़ दिखाता है।'

  65. Question 65

    'यह नाटक बहुत अच्छे है।' पुल्लिंग की दृष्टि से वाक्य का शुद्ध रूप है-

    1. a. यह नाटक बहुत अच्छी है।
    2. b. यह नाटक बहुत अच्छा है।
    3. c. यह नाटक अच्छा था।
    4. d. नाटक अच्छा हो सकता है।

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'नाटक' पुल्लिंग एकवचन संज्ञा है, अत: विशेषण भी पुल्लिंग एकवचन 'अच्छा' ही होगा - 'यह नाटक बहुत अच्छा है।' 'अच्छे' बहुवचन है जो लिंग-वचन की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है।

  66. Question 66

    'पितृश्वसा' का उचित तद्भव रूप चुनकर वाक्य पूर्ण करें- यह उसकी ______ है।

    1. a. बुआ
    2. b. पतोहू
    3. c. मौसी
    4. d. परछाई

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'पितृश्वसा' (पिता की बहन) का तद्भव रूप 'बुआ' है। मौसी माता की बहन होती है, पतोहू पुत्रवधू तथा परछाई छाया का तद्भव है।

  67. Question 67

    लिंग-निर्णय की दृष्टि से, निम्नलिखित में से किस द्रव का नाम स्त्रीलिंग में होता है?

    1. a. मट्ठा
    2. b. लस्सी
    3. c. शरबत
    4. d. पानी

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'लस्सी' स्त्रीलिंग है - 'लस्सी मीठी है'। पानी, शरबत तथा मट्ठा पुल्लिंग हैं - 'पानी ठंडा है', 'मट्ठा खट्टा है'।

  68. Question 68

    रेखांकित शब्द के विलोम से दिया गया वाक्य पूर्ण करें- 'निर्मल' हृदय में ही ईश्वर का वास होता है, ______ हृदय में तो शैतान ही बसता है।

    1. a. निष्ठुर
    2. b. कुटिल
    3. c. मलिन
    4. d. अस्वच्छ

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'निर्मल' (स्वच्छ/पवित्र) का विलोम 'मलिन' (मैला/अशुद्ध) है। निष्ठुर निर्दयी का, कुटिल छलपूर्ण का और अस्वच्छ गंदगी से जुड़ा विलोम है।

  69. Question 69

    निम्नलिखित वाक्य के किस खंड में अशुद्धि है? सांस्कृतिक जागृति के बाद राष्ट्रिय जागृति आती है।

    1. a. जागृति
    2. b. आती
    3. c. राष्ट्रिय
    4. d. सांस्कृतिक

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'राष्ट्रिय' की शुद्ध वर्तनी 'राष्ट्रीय' है (ई की मात्रा की अशुद्धि)। शेष खंड वर्तनी तथा व्याकरण की दृष्टि से शुद्ध हैं।

  70. Question 70

    'अंक' शब्द का अनेकार्थी निम्न में से कौन सा असंगत है?

    1. a. गोद
    2. b. नाटक का भाग
    3. c. धागा
    4. d. संख्या

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'अंक' के अर्थ - गोद, नाटक का भाग, संख्या, स्थान आदि हैं। 'धागा' 'अंक' का अर्थ नहीं है, अत: यही असंगत है।

  71. Question 71

    'यह झील प्राकृतिक है।' रेखांकित शब्द के उचित विलोम शब्द का चयन कीजिए।

    1. a. बनावटी
    2. b. विलुप्त
    3. c. कृत्रिम
    4. d. गैरप्राकृतिक

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'प्राकृतिक' का मानक विलोम 'कृत्रिम' है - 'कृत्रिम झील'। बनावटी/गैरप्राकृतिक अशिष्ट रूप हैं तथा विलुप्त का अर्थ भिन्न है।

  72. Question 72

    निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रेखांकित पद के बदले कौन सा विकल्प उपयुक्त होगा? बूढ़ी काकी 'जूठी पत्तलों को खाने' लगी।

    1. a. चाटने
    2. b. चबाने
    3. c. निगलने
    4. d. देखने

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: जूठी पत्तलों पर लगा अन्न 'चाटने' का भाव दर्शाता है - खाना, चबाना या निगलना अनुचित है। यह प्रसंग भारतेंदु युगीन कथा की दयनीय दशा को दिखाता है।

  73. Question 73

    इनमें से 'संकीर्ण' का विलोम शब्द कौन-सा है?

    1. a. विस्तीर्ण
    2. b. विकिरण
    3. c. प्रकीर्ण
    4. d. अवतीर्ण

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'संकीर्ण' (छोटा/सीमित) का विलोम 'विस्तीर्ण' (विस्तृत/फैला हुआ) है। विकिरण, प्रकीर्ण तथा अवतीर्ण के अर्थ भिन्न हैं।

  74. Question 74

    वर्तनी की दृष्टि से दिए गए वाक्य के त्रुटि वाले अंश को पहचानें- तूफानी बारिश के कारण गाँववाले 'अनिष्ठ की आशंका' से काँप उठे।

    1. a. तूफानी बारिश
    2. b. अनिष्ठ की आशंका
    3. c. के कारण गाँववाले
    4. d. से काँप उठे।

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'अनिष्ठ' वर्तनी अशुद्ध है; संस्कृत ट् प्रत्यय से बना शब्द 'अनिष्ट' (बुरा/हानि) होता है, जैसे - अनिष्ट की आशंका।

  75. Question 75

    दिए गए वाक्य में शब्द या वाक्य खण्ड को बदलिए। मैं 'गाने का कसरत' कर रहा हूँ।

    1. a. मैं गाने का अभ्यास कर रहा हूँ।
    2. b. मैं गाना का कसरत ही कर रहा हूँ।
    3. c. मैं गाने का ही कसरत करता हूँ।
    4. d. मैं गाने की कसरत कर रहा हूँ।

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: गायकी का साधना 'अभ्यास' (रियाज़) कहलाती है, 'कसरत' नहीं। कसरत शारीरिक व्यायाम के लिए प्रयुक्त होती है।

  76. Question 76

    गद्यांश की पंक्ति में रिक्त स्थान (16) की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त शब्द होगा- महाराज शांतनु का सत्यवती से ______ हुआ। गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न का उत्तर दें महाराज शांतनु का सत्यवती से (16) ______ हुआ और उससे उनके दो पुत्र हुए चित्रांगद और विचित्रवीर्य। चित्रांगद निःसंतान मरे और विचित्रवीर्य को धृतराष्ट्र और पांडु नामक दो पुत्र उत्पन्न हुए। धृतराष्ट्र जन्मांध थे अतः राज्यगद्दी पांडु को प्राप्त हुई। धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र हुए जिनमें (17) ______ सबसे बड़ा था। पांडु के क्रमशः युधिष्ठिर, भीम, अर्जुन, नकुल और सहदेव पांच पुत्र हुए। धृतराष्ट्र के पुत्र (18) ______ तथा पांडु के पुत्र पांडव कहे जाते थे। अर्जुन (19) ______ में, भीम मल्लयुद्ध में अद्वितीय थे। दुर्योधन पांडवों से ईर्ष्या रखता था। भीष्म ने इन राजकुमारों की शिक्षा-दीक्षा का उचित प्रबंध किया था। (20) ______ उनके पितामह लगते थे।

    1. a. युद्ध
    2. b. संघर्ष
    3. c. समझौता
    4. d. विवाह

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: महाभारत कथानक के अनुसार शांतनु का सत्यवती से विवाह हुआ था, जिससे चित्रांगद और विचित्रवीर्य का जन्म हुआ।

  77. Question 77

    गद्यांश की पंक्ति में रिक्त स्थान (17) की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त शब्द होगा- धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र हुए जिनमें ______ सबसे बड़ा था। गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न का उत्तर दें महाराज शांतनु का सत्यवती से (16) ______ हुआ और उससे उनके दो पुत्र हुए चित्रांगद और विचित्रवीर्य। चित्रांगद निःसंतान मरे और विचित्रवीर्य को धृतराष्ट्र और पांडु नामक दो पुत्र उत्पन्न हुए। धृतराष्ट्र जन्मांध थे अतः राज्यगद्दी पांडु को प्राप्त हुई। धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र हुए जिनमें (17) ______ सबसे बड़ा था। पांडु के क्रमशः युधिष्ठिर, भीम, अर्जुन, नकुल और सहदेव पांच पुत्र हुए। धृतराष्ट्र के पुत्र (18) ______ तथा पांडु के पुत्र पांडव कहे जाते थे। अर्जुन (19) ______ में, भीम मल्लयुद्ध में अद्वितीय थे। दुर्योधन पांडवों से ईर्ष्या रखता था। भीष्म ने इन राजकुमारों की शिक्षा-दीक्षा का उचित प्रबंध किया था। (20) ______ उनके पितामह लगते थे।

    1. a. कर्ण
    2. b. दुर्योधन
    3. c. दुशासन
    4. d. युधिष्ठिर

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्रों (कौरवों) में सबसे बड़े दुर्योधन थे; दुशासन उनका अनुज था तथा युधिष्ठिर पांडु का पुत्र था।

  78. Question 78

    गद्यांश की पंक्ति में रिक्त स्थान (18) की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त शब्द होगा- धृतराष्ट्र के पुत्र ______ तथा पांडु के पुत्र पांडव कहे जाते थे। गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न का उत्तर दें महाराज शांतनु का सत्यवती से (16) ______ हुआ और उससे उनके दो पुत्र हुए चित्रांगद और विचित्रवीर्य। चित्रांगद निःसंतान मरे और विचित्रवीर्य को धृतराष्ट्र और पांडु नामक दो पुत्र उत्पन्न हुए। धृतराष्ट्र जन्मांध थे अतः राज्यगद्दी पांडु को प्राप्त हुई। धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र हुए जिनमें (17) ______ सबसे बड़ा था। पांडु के क्रमशः युधिष्ठिर, भीम, अर्जुन, नकुल और सहदेव पांच पुत्र हुए। धृतराष्ट्र के पुत्र (18) ______ तथा पांडु के पुत्र पांडव कहे जाते थे। अर्जुन (19) ______ में, भीम मल्लयुद्ध में अद्वितीय थे। दुर्योधन पांडवों से ईर्ष्या रखता था। भीष्म ने इन राजकुमारों की शिक्षा-दीक्षा का उचित प्रबंध किया था। (20) ______ उनके पितामह लगते थे।

    1. a. गौरव
    2. b. यदु
    3. c. वसु
    4. d. कौरव

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र 'कौरव' तथा पांडु के पाँच पुत्र 'पांडव' कहलाते थे। यदु यदुवंशी वंश का, वसु एक देवता का नाम है।

  79. Question 79

    गद्यांश की पंक्ति में रिक्त स्थान (19) की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त शब्द होगा- अर्जुन ______ में, भीम मल्लयुद्ध में अद्वितीय थे। गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न का उत्तर दें महाराज शांतनु का सत्यवती से (16) ______ हुआ और उससे उनके दो पुत्र हुए चित्रांगद और विचित्रवीर्य। चित्रांगद निःसंतान मरे और विचित्रवीर्य को धृतराष्ट्र और पांडु नामक दो पुत्र उत्पन्न हुए। धृतराष्ट्र जन्मांध थे अतः राज्यगद्दी पांडु को प्राप्त हुई। धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र हुए जिनमें (17) ______ सबसे बड़ा था। पांडु के क्रमशः युधिष्ठिर, भीम, अर्जुन, नकुल और सहदेव पांच पुत्र हुए। धृतराष्ट्र के पुत्र (18) ______ तथा पांडु के पुत्र पांडव कहे जाते थे। अर्जुन (19) ______ में, भीम मल्लयुद्ध में अद्वितीय थे। दुर्योधन पांडवों से ईर्ष्या रखता था। भीष्म ने इन राजकुमारों की शिक्षा-दीक्षा का उचित प्रबंध किया था। (20) ______ उनके पितामह लगते थे।

    1. a. गदा युद्ध
    2. b. द्वंद्व युद्ध
    3. c. तलवारबाजी
    4. d. धनुर्विद्या

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: अर्जुन धनुर्धर थे - उन्हें धनुर्विद्या (तीरंदाजी) में अद्वितीय माना जाता है, जबकि भीम गदा युद्ध में सर्वश्रेष्ठ थे।

  80. Question 80

    गद्यांश की पंक्ति में रिक्त स्थान (20) की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त शब्द होगा- ______ उनके पितामह लगते थे। गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न का उत्तर दें महाराज शांतनु का सत्यवती से (16) ______ हुआ और उससे उनके दो पुत्र हुए चित्रांगद और विचित्रवीर्य। चित्रांगद निःसंतान मरे और विचित्रवीर्य को धृतराष्ट्र और पांडु नामक दो पुत्र उत्पन्न हुए। धृतराष्ट्र जन्मांध थे अतः राज्यगद्दी पांडु को प्राप्त हुई। धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र हुए जिनमें (17) ______ सबसे बड़ा था। पांडु के क्रमशः युधिष्ठिर, भीम, अर्जुन, नकुल और सहदेव पांच पुत्र हुए। धृतराष्ट्र के पुत्र (18) ______ तथा पांडु के पुत्र पांडव कहे जाते थे। अर्जुन (19) ______ में, भीम मल्लयुद्ध में अद्वितीय थे। दुर्योधन पांडवों से ईर्ष्या रखता था। भीष्म ने इन राजकुमारों की शिक्षा-दीक्षा का उचित प्रबंध किया था। (20) ______ उनके पितामह लगते थे।

    1. a. शांतनु
    2. b. धृतराष्ट्र
    3. c. पांडु
    4. d. भीष्म

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: भीष्म शांतनु के पुत्र थे, अत: कौरवों और पांडवों दोनों के पितामह (परदादा) भीष्म ही थे, जिन्होंने राजकुमारों की शिक्षा-दीक्षा का प्रबंध किया।

SSC GD Constable Previous Paper — 20 February 2025, Shift 1 (English Medium) — View 80 questions
  1. Question 1

    A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively in the directions shown and is then punched after the last fold. How would the paper look when unfolded?Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: A single punch through the doubly-folded sheet produces four symmetrical holes when fully unfolded. As the punch sits near the vertical fold line, unfolding mirrors it into a horizontally aligned pair of circles; the second (horizontal) fold mirrors it again, giving two such pairs.

  2. Question 2

    Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The number of horizontal lines increases by 2 each step (2, 4, 6, 8), so the fifth figure needs 10 lines. The open box alternates in pairs - facing down for two terms, then up for two - so the fifth term opens downward again. This is option 2.

  3. Question 3

    Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will logically complete the series. _JDIF_EJGL_KHMG_INH_

    1. a. CKELO
    2. b. CIEKO
    3. c. EKFLM
    4. d. EIFKM

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Splitting into four-letter groups: E J D I / F K E J / G L F K / H M G L / I N H M. Inside every group the letters advance by +5, −6, +5, and each group begins one letter (+1) after the previous group. Blanks take E, K, F, L, M, so the answer is EKFLM.

  4. Question 4

    In a certain code language, 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter of B', 'A − B' means 'A is the brother of B', 'A × B' means 'A is the wife of B' and 'A + B' means 'A is the father of B'. Based on the above, how is P related to T if 'P ÷ Q − R + S × T'?

    1. a. Father's brother's wife
    2. b. Wife's father's brother's wife
    3. c. Wife's father's brother's daughter
    4. d. Father's brother's daughter

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: T's wife is S (S × T). S's father is R (R + S). R's brother is Q (Q − R). Q's daughter is P (P ÷ Q). Hence P is the daughter of the brother of T's wife's father.

  5. Question 5

    In a certain code language, 'RUST' is coded as '8264' and 'TURN' is coded as '2843'. How is 'S' coded in the given language?

    1. a. 8
    2. b. 4
    3. c. 2
    4. d. 6

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Comparing RUST (8264) and TURN (2843), the common letters R, U, T map to 8, 2, 4 respectively. The remaining letter of RUST is S, which maps to 6.

  6. Question 6

    MRCS is related to PUFV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VOLG is related to YROJ. To which of the given options is SHIM related, following the same logic?

    1. a. VLEJ
    2. b. VELJ
    3. c. VKLP
    4. d. VLKP

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: In both MRCS → PUFV and VOLG → YROJ every letter moves +3 places along the alphabet. Applying the same rule to SHIM: S→V, H→K, I→L, M→P, giving VKLP.

  7. Question 7

    If each letter of the word DELIGHT is arranged in the English alphabetical order, how many letters will remain in the same position?

    1. a. Three
    2. b. Two
    3. c. Four
    4. d. One

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Original: D E L I G H T. Alphabetical: D E G H I L T. Comparing positions, the 1st (D), 2nd (E) and 7th (T) letters stay in place - three letters in total.

  8. Question 8

    Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Figure (X) consists of three dotted circles joined by Y-shaped lines, with two arrows extending outward from the junction. This exact arrangement appears unrotated in option 1; the other options lack dots on the circles, use squares, or join the elements differently.

  9. Question 9

    RFTQ is related to VKXV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, DNPJ is related to HSTO. To which of the given options is HLXB related, following the same logic?

    1. a. EOLA
    2. b. NOQX
    3. c. LEPV
    4. d. LQBG

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Both known pairs shift by +4, +5, +4, +5 (R+4=V, F+5=K, T+4=X, Q+5=V). For HLXB: H+4=L, L+5=Q, X+4=B (wrapping past Z, A), B+5=G, giving LQBG.

  10. Question 10

    Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All bins are tins. Some pins are fins. All fins are tins. Conclusions: (I): All pins are tins. (II): Some bins are fins.

    1. a. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
    2. b. Only conclusion (I) follows.
    3. c. Only conclusion (II) follows.
    4. d. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: No relationship between bins and fins is given, so 'some bins are fins' is uncertain and conclusion (II) does not follow. Only some pins are fins (and hence tins); all pins being tins is not guaranteed, so conclusion (I) also fails. Neither conclusion follows.

  11. Question 11

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 21 75 120 156 183 ?

    1. a. 201
    2. b. 213
    3. c. 226
    4. d. 219

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Successive differences are 54, 45, 36, 27 - each 9 less than the previous (decreasing multiples of 9). The next difference is 18, so the missing term = 183 + 18 = 201.

  12. Question 12

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 120, 361, 1084, 3253, 9760, ?

    1. a. 27281
    2. b. 28281
    3. c. 26281
    4. d. 29281

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Each term = previous term × 3 + 1. E.g. 120×3+1=361, 361×3+1=1084, 1084×3+1=3253, 3253×3+1=9760. Next term = 9760×3+1 = 29281.

  13. Question 13

    What will come in the place of the question mark '(?)' in the following equation, if '-' and '÷' are interchanged and '×' and '+' are interchanged? 9 + 56 − 8 × 4 ÷ 9 = ?

    1. a. 56
    2. b. 57
    3. c. 58
    4. d. 59

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: After swapping, the equation becomes: 9 × 56 ÷ 8 + 4 − 9. By BODMAS: 56 ÷ 8 = 7, then 9 × 7 = 63; 63 + 4 = 67; 67 − 9 = 58.

  14. Question 14

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? ICD MGH QKL UOP ?

    1. a. VRQ
    2. b. YST
    3. c. NOP
    4. d. NPO

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: In each column the letters advance by +4: I→M→Q→U→Y, C→G→K→O→S, D→H→L→P→T. The missing group is YST.

  15. Question 15

    Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Kings, Queens, Fathers

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Some kings are also fathers, so the circles for 'kings' and 'fathers' intersect. 'Queens' form a female class that can belong to neither male category, so its circle stays completely separate. Only option 3 shows this arrangement.

  16. Question 16

    Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.) NVD, IOY, JRZ, PXF

    1. a. NVD
    2. b. IOY
    3. c. JRZ
    4. d. PXF

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: NVD: N+8=V, V+8=D; JRZ: J+8=R, R+8=Z; PXF: P+8=X, X+8=F - in all three the letters are spaced +8 apart. But in IOY, I+6=O and O+10=Y, so it breaks the pattern.

  17. Question 17

    In a certain code language, 'KIXCUP' is coded as '10' and 'DZYM' is coded as '8'. What is the code for 'RSAWYQI' in the given code language?

    1. a. 9
    2. b. 11
    3. c. 13
    4. d. 6

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Code = (number of letters in the word) + 4. KIXCUP (6 letters) → 10; DZYM (4 letters) → 8. RSAWYQI has 7 letters, so its code = 7 + 4 = 11.

  18. Question 18

    A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?Diagram given in the question

    1. a. Figure 1
    2. b. Figure 2
    3. c. Figure 3
    4. d. Figure 4

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The sheet is first folded bottom-up and then right-to-left, leaving the top-left quarter. A vertical circle-rectangle-circle stack is cut near its outer (left) edge. Unfolding mirrors the cut once across the vertical fold (so it also appears near the right edge) and once across the horizontal fold (so it repeats in the bottom half) - four corner stacks of circle-rectangle-circle, as in option 3.

  19. Question 19

    Seven people, G, H, I, J, K, L and M, are sitting in a row, facing north (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two people sit between M and I. Only K sits to the right of J. Only one person sits between I and J. G sits at some place to the right of L but at some place to the left of H. How many people sit between H and L?

    1. a. Two
    2. b. Four
    3. c. Three
    4. d. One

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Only K is right of J → J=6, K=7. One person between I and J → I=4. Two between M and I → M=1. Remaining seats 2, 3, 5 hold L, G, H; G right of L and left of H → L=2, G=3, H=5. Row: M L G I H J K. Between H (seat 5) and L (seat 2) sit G and I - 2 people.

  20. Question 20

    Seven people, E, F, G, H, K, L and N, are sitting in a row facing north (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two people sit to the right of K. Only two people sit between K and F. Only two people sit between E and H. H sits to the immediate left of K. N sits to the immediate right of L. How many people sit between G and L?

    1. a. One
    2. b. Three
    3. c. Two
    4. d. Four

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Two people right of K → K=5. H immediately left of K → H=4. Two between K and F → F=2. Among remaining seats 1, 3, 6, 7 the consecutive pair for L, N is only (6, 7) → L=6, N=7. Two between E and H → E=1 (E=7 leaves only seat 3 for the pair, impossible). So G=3. Row: E G F H K L N. Between G (3) and L (6) sit H and K - 2 people.

  21. Question 21

    Who is the Principal Secretary to PM Modi as of September 2024?

    1. a. Manoj Gupta
    2. b. Shivshankar Menon
    3. c. PK Mishra
    4. d. Kataragama Menon

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Dr. P. K. Mishra, a retired IAS officer of the 1967 batch, has been serving as Principal Secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi since 2019 and continued in the post as of September 2024.

  22. Question 22

    Name the Indian music composer of songs for the film 'Slumdog Millionaire'.

    1. a. Santosh Narayanan
    2. b. Pritam Chakraborty
    3. c. Amit Trivedi
    4. d. AR Rahman

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: A. R. Rahman composed the music for Slumdog Millionaire (2008) and won two Academy Awards for it - Best Original Score and Best Original Song ('Jai Ho').

  23. Question 23

    As per Census 2011, what was the child sex ratio of India?

    1. a. 945
    2. b. 940
    3. c. 927
    4. d. 919

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Census 2011 puts India's child sex ratio (0-6 years) at 919 girls per 1,000 boys. The overall sex ratio, 943, appears among the options as a distractor.

  24. Question 24

    Which Five-Year Plan aimed at making India self-reliant and focused on 'Defense and Development' due to external aggression and economic constraints?

    1. a. Third Plan
    2. b. Fourth Plan
    3. c. Sixth Plan
    4. d. Seventh Plan

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) aimed at building a self-reliant economy. After the Chinese aggression of 1962 its emphasis shifted to 'Defense and Development'.

  25. Question 25

    The Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) is a/ an _______ character code for identifying the bank and branch in which an account is held.

    1. a. Eight
    2. b. Fifteen
    3. c. Eleven
    4. d. Thirteen

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: IFSC is an 11-character code: the first 4 characters identify the bank, the 5th character (usually 0) denotes the control office, and the last 6 characters identify the branch. It is used in electronic fund transfers (NEFT/RTGS).

  26. Question 26

    Under which Articles of the Indian Constitution are the Fundamental Rights enshrined?

    1. a. Articles 10-32
    2. b. Articles 12-35
    3. c. Articles 14-24
    4. d. Articles 18-45

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Fundamental Rights appear in Part III of the Constitution, Articles 12 to 35 - equality (14-18), freedom (19-22), against exploitation (23-24), freedom of religion (25-28), cultural and educational rights (29-30), constitutional remedies (32-35).

  27. Question 27

    Which country won the 4th Asian Kho-Kho Championship 2023 event in the women's category?

    1. a. India
    2. b. Indonesia
    3. c. South Korea
    4. d. Iran

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: India won both the men's and women's titles at the 4th Asian Kho-Kho Championship held in Guwahati, Assam in 2023.

  28. Question 28

    Who was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in October 2024?

    1. a. Shah Rukh Khan
    2. b. Amitabh Bachchan
    3. c. Rajinikanth
    4. d. Mithun Chakraborty

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Veteran actor Mithun Chakraborty was conferred the Dadasaheb Phalke Award - Indian cinema's highest honour - at the 70th National Film Awards ceremony in October 2024.

  29. Question 29

    According to the Constitution of India, what is the maximum tenure of the election commissioner of India?

    1. a. Eight years
    2. b. Three years
    3. c. Five years
    4. d. Six years

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners hold office for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. They vacate office in the same manner as judges of the Supreme Court.

  30. Question 30

    Who among the following founded the Abhinav Bharat Mandir (Young India Society)?

    1. a. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and Ganesh Damodar Savarkar
    2. b. BR Ambedkar and C Rajagopalachari
    3. c. Aurobindo Ghosh and Dadabhai Naoroji
    4. d. Motilal Nehru and CR Das

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Abhinav Bharat Society was founded in 1904 at Nashik by V. D. Savarkar along with his elder brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar, with the aim of achieving independence through armed revolution.

  31. Question 31

    Konark festival is celebrated in which of the following states?

    1. a. Odisha
    2. b. Manipur
    3. c. Andhra Pradesh
    4. d. Kerala

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Konark Dance Festival is held every December in the premises of the Konark Sun Temple in Odisha, featuring classical and folk dancers from across India.

  32. Question 32

    To which of the following Indian states does Mohiniattam classical dance form belong?

    1. a. Andhra Pradesh
    2. b. Karnataka
    3. c. Maharashtra
    4. d. Kerala

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Mohiniattam is the classical dance of Kerala; its name derives from 'Mohini' (the enchantress). Its music tradition is called Sopanam and it developed parallel to Kathakali.

  33. Question 33

    In which year was Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana launched by the government of India?

    1. a. 2020
    2. b. 2019
    3. c. 2018
    4. d. 2017

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Launched in October 2020, Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana has the government subsidise the employer's PF/EPS contribution for employees who lost jobs during COVID-19 and for new hires.

  34. Question 34

    From where does the river Indus enter India?

    1. a. Kashmir valley
    2. b. It does not flow in India.
    3. c. Gilgit
    4. d. Ladakh

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Rising near Lake Manasarovar in Tibet, the Indus enters India in Ladakh near Demchok and then flows through Gilgit-Baltistan into Pakistan.

  35. Question 35

    Select the correct sequence of materials put one after the other as per the order of element, compound, and homogeneous mixture.

    1. a. Salt, iron and sea water
    2. b. Mercury, iron, and diluted acid
    3. c. Mercury, salt and milk
    4. d. Iron, methane and sea water

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Iron is an element (Fe), methane a compound (CH₄ - chemically bonded C and H), and sea water a homogeneous mixture (dissolved salt uniform throughout). The sequences in other options do not match these categories.

  36. Question 36

    Gadgil formula is concerned with:

    1. a. distribution of natural resources to the states
    2. b. distribution of Central Assistance among the state
    3. c. distribution of subsidies
    4. d. distribution of foreign investments

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Formulated in 1969 by the working group headed by Planning Commission Deputy Chairman D. R. Gadgil, the formula distributed plan assistance among states on criteria of population (60%), per-capita income, tax effort and major problems.

  37. Question 37

    What is the concept of ecological niche?

    1. a. Ecological niche refers to a species' specific role in an ecosystem.
    2. b. Ecological niche is solely determined by an organism's habitat.
    3. c. Ecological niche refers to the genetic diversity within a species.
    4. d. Ecological niche refers to the physical space a species occupies.

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: An ecological niche is the full functional role and position a species occupies in its ecosystem - covering food, habitat and competition; it goes beyond mere physical habitat.

  38. Question 38

    In which tournament in 2018 did Neeraj Chopra become the first Indian javelin thrower to win a gold medal?

    1. a. World Championships
    2. b. Olympic Games
    3. c. Asian Games
    4. d. Asian U20 Championships

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Neeraj Chopra won javelin gold at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games, becoming the first Indian to do so. (He also won gold at that year's Commonwealth Games.)

  39. Question 39

    Which Iranian-origin group was known in Indian sources as Shaka-Pahlava?

    1. a. Kushanas
    2. b. Parthians
    3. c. Indo-Greeks
    4. d. Shakas

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The Parthians (Pahlavas) came to India from Iran; Indian sources club them with the Shakas as 'Shaka-Pahlava'. They ruled Punjab in the 1st century CE; Gondophernes was their famous ruler.

  40. Question 40

    Saroja Vaidyanathan, the recipient of Padma Shri in 2002 and Padma Bhushan in 2013 is a dancer of which classical dance form?

    1. a. Bharatanatyam
    2. b. Kathak
    3. c. Manipuri
    4. d. Odissi

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Saroja Vaidyanathan was an acclaimed Bharatanatyam dancer and guru who founded Ganesa Natyalaya in Delhi; she received the Padma Shri in 2002 and Padma Bhushan in 2013.

  41. Question 41

    The average weight of Mukund, Sachin and Chetan is 46 kg. If the average weight of Mukund and Sachin be 39 kg and that of Sachin and Chetan be 45 kg, then the weight of Sachin (in kg) is:

    1. a. 50
    2. b. 45
    3. c. 40
    4. d. 30

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: M + S + C = 46 × 3 = 138; M + S = 78; S + C = 90. So S = (M + S) + (S + C) − (M + S + C) = 78 + 90 − 138 = 30 kg.

  42. Question 42

    The LCM of 42, 36, 312 and 126 is:

    1. a. 6587
    2. b. 6616
    3. c. 6520
    4. d. 6552

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Prime factors: 42 = 2×3×7, 36 = 2²×3², 312 = 2³×3×13, 126 = 2×3²×7. LCM takes highest powers = 2³ × 3² × 7 × 13 = 8 × 9 × 91 = 6552.

  43. Question 43

    A bus covers a distance of 30 km in 45 minutes and further it covers double the distance covered earlier in 60 minutes. The average speed of the bus is ______ km/hr (rounded off to two decimal places).

    1. a. 51.43
    2. b. 55.41
    3. c. 54.31
    4. d. 53.14

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Total distance = 30 + 60 = 90 km. Total time = 45 + 60 = 105 min = 1.75 hours. Average speed = 90 ÷ 1.75 ≈ 51.43 km/hr.

  44. Question 44

    What is the highest number between 5000 and 5500, which when divided by 12, 16 and 24, would leave a remainder 9?

    1. a. 5184
    2. b. 5148
    3. c. 5814
    4. d. 5481

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: LCM(12, 16, 24) = 48. Largest multiple of 48 below 5500 = 48 × 114 = 5472. Adding the required remainder 9 gives 5472 + 9 = 5481.

  45. Question 45

    The marked price of an article is 30% above the cost price, and the article is sold at 10% less than the marked price. The profit percentage is:

    1. a. 15%
    2. b. 19%
    3. c. 13%
    4. d. 17%

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Let CP = 100. Then MP = 130. SP = MP − 10% = 130 − 13 = 117. Profit % = 117 − 100 = 17%.

  46. Question 46

    Evaluate: 32 ÷ 8 × 3 − 3 × 4

    1. a. 0
    2. b. 2
    3. c. 3
    4. d. -1

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: By BODMAS: (32 ÷ 8) × 3 − 3 × 4 = 4 × 3 − 12 = 12 − 12 = 0.

  47. Question 47

    Kanchan bought a ring and sold it to Mohan at a profit of 5%. Mohan sold it to Pramod at a loss of 25%. If Pramod paid ₹3150, then the cost price (in ₹) of the ring Kanchan bought is:

    1. a. 4000
    2. b. 3750
    3. c. 3800
    4. d. 4150

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: CP × 1.05 × 0.75 = 3150. Hence CP = 3150 ÷ 0.7875 = ₹4000.

  48. Question 48

    The simple interest on a principal amount (in ₹) is ₹177 for a period of 5 years at the rate of 2% per annum. The principal amount (in ₹) is:

    1. a. 1764
    2. b. 1773
    3. c. 1771
    4. d. 1770

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: SI = P × R × T ÷ 100. So 177 = P × 2 × 5 ÷ 100, giving P = 177 × 10 = ₹1770.

  49. Question 49

    The first and second numbers are, respectively, 35% and 45% less than the third number. The second number is what percentage of the first number?

    1. a. 64 7/12 %
    2. b. 79 2/19 %
    3. c. 68 9/16 %
    4. d. 84 8/13 %

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Take the third number as 100. First = 65, Second = 55. Required percentage = 55 ÷ 65 × 100 = 1100/13 = 84 8/13 %.

  50. Question 50

    The LCM of 40, 20, 195 and 160 is:

    1. a. 6169
    2. b. 6319
    3. c. 6240
    4. d. 6219

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 40 = 2³×5, 20 = 2²×5, 160 = 2⁵×5, 195 = 3×5×13. LCM = 2⁵ × 3 × 5 × 13 = 32 × 195 = 6240.

  51. Question 51

    A pipe can fill a water tank in 36 minutes, and another can fill it in 48 minutes, but a third pipe can empty it in 18 minutes. The first two pipes are kept open for 16 minutes at the beginning, and then the third pipe is also opened. How long does it take to empty the tank?

    1. a. 85 minutes
    2. b. 112 minutes
    3. c. 120 minutes
    4. d. 98 minutes

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Tank capacity = LCM(36, 48, 18) = 144 units. Rates: A = +4, B = +3, C = −8 units/min. In 16 minutes A+B filled 7 × 16 = 112 units. With all three open the net rate = 4 + 3 − 8 = −1, so emptying takes 112 minutes.

  52. Question 52

    Veer has ₹1617 with him. He divided it amongst his sons Nitin and Pravin and asked them to invest it at 10% rate of interest compounded annually. It was seen that Nitin and Pravin got same amount after 16 and 17 years respectively. How much (in ₹) did Veer give to Nitin?

    1. a. 847
    2. b. 697
    3. c. 870
    4. d. 770

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: N × (1.1)¹⁶ = P × (1.1)¹⁷ → N/P = 1.1 = 11/10. Nitin’s share = 11/21 × 1617 = ₹847.

  53. Question 53

    Ravi travels from City A to City B. If Ravi drives his car at 2/3 of his normal speed, then he reaches City B 47 minutes late. Find the time (in minutes) that Ravi would have taken to travel from City A to City B if he drove at his normal speed.

    1. a. 100
    2. b. 94
    3. c. 84
    4. d. 102

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Time is inversely proportional to speed: at 2/3 speed the new time = 3/2 × normal time. Extra time = 1/2 × normal time = 47 min, so normal time = 94 minutes.

  54. Question 54

    Find the volume of a cylinder with radius of base 7 cm and height 10.2 cm. (Use π = 22/7).

    1. a. 1570.8 cm³
    2. b. 1573.8 cm³
    3. c. 1572.8 cm³
    4. d. 1571.8 cm³

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Volume of a cylinder = πr²h = (22/7) × 49 × 10.2 = 22 × 7 × 10.2 = 154 × 10.2 = 1570.8 cm³.

  55. Question 55

    The price (per litre) of petrol increases by 80%. By what percent should its consumption be reduced such that the expenditure on it increases by 17% only?

    1. a. 66%
    2. b. 65%
    3. c. 35%
    4. d. 48%

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Old price = 100, consumption = 100 → expenditure = 10000. New price = 180, new expenditure = 11700 → new consumption = 11700/180 = 65. Reduction = 100 − 65 = 35%.

  56. Question 56

    Find the mean proportion of 5.76 and 0.88. (rounded off to two decimal places)

    1. a. 2.25
    2. b. 2.85
    3. c. 2.54
    4. d. 2.34

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Mean proportion = √(5.76 × 0.88) = √5.0688 ≈ 2.2514 ≈ 2.25.

  57. Question 57

    A retailer offers a discount scheme where customers receive a 10% discount on purchases between ₹1,000 and ₹5,000, and a 20% discount on purchases above ₹5,000. If a customer buys goods worth ₹6,000, how much will they save (in ₹) compared to the original price?

    1. a. 1,000
    2. b. 1,100
    3. c. 1,200
    4. d. 1,300

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The purchase is ₹6,000 (above ₹5,000), so the full amount gets the 20% discount. Savings = 20% of 6000 = ₹1200.

  58. Question 58

    The rate of advertisement on a TV channel is directly proportional to the duration of the advertisement. If the rate of an advertisement of 20 seconds is ₹1,25,000, then the rate of an advertisement of 25 seconds will be

    1. a. 1,55,620
    2. b. 1,65,250
    3. c. 1,56,250
    4. d. 1,62,550

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Rate per second = 125000 ÷ 20 = 6250. For 25 seconds: 6250 × 25 = ₹156250.

  59. Question 59

    Five persons in a group have salaries of ₹15,000, ₹25,000, ₹30,000, ₹12,000 and ₹18,000, respectively. What is the average salary (in ₹) per person of the group?

    1. a. 18,000
    2. b. 20,000
    3. c. 21,000
    4. d. 19,000

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Sum = 15000 + 25000 + 30000 + 12000 + 18000 = 100000. Average = 100000 ÷ 5 = ₹20000.

  60. Question 60

    Rodney has two grandsons Amit and Gopal. 11 year old Amit gets some money from Rodney's wealth and 12 year old Gopal gets rest of the money. But Amit and Gopal will get money only when they turn 23 years old. Till then the money is in a bank getting interest at rate 10% compounded annually. When both turn 23, they receive the same amount. How much had Rodney given Gopal (in ₹) initially, if total money with Rodney was ₹23100?

    1. a. 12450
    2. b. 11000
    3. c. 12100
    4. d. 10750

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Amit's money grows for 12 years, Gopal's for 11 years: A × (1.1)¹² = G × (1.1)¹¹ → G/A = 1.1 = 11/10. Gopal's share = 11/21 × 23100 = ₹12100.

  61. Question 61

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Throughout our day-to-day interactions, there are ______ when we might choose to keep certain information to ourselves.

    1. a. timings
    2. b. sometimes
    3. c. times
    4. d. anytime

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The plural noun 'times' correctly completes the structure 'there are times when...'. 'Sometimes' is an adverb of frequency and cannot follow 'there are'.

  62. Question 62

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. The new smartphone had a (1) ______ design, responsive (2) ______ and impressive camera, making it one of the most (3) ______ gadgets in the market.

    1. a. (1) sought-after (2) sleek (3) interface
    2. b. (1) interface; (2) sought-after; (3) sleek
    3. c. (1) interface (2) sleek (3) sought-after
    4. d. (1) sleek (2) interface; (3) sought-after

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Collocation decides each blank: a 'sleek' design, a responsive 'interface' (the part that responds), and the 'most sought-after gadgets'. Only option 4 fits all three.

  63. Question 63

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in the brackets to fill in the blank. Jintu is such a ______ (funny) person.

    1. a. tall
    2. b. bad
    3. c. humorous
    4. d. cold

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: A 'funny' person is amusing; its synonym here is 'humorous'. The remaining adjectives do not describe humour.

  64. Question 64

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Rudimentary

    1. a. Intricate
    2. b. Elementary
    3. c. Advanced
    4. d. Complex

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'Rudimentary' means basic or fundamental; its synonym is 'Elementary'. Intricate/Complex are antonyms in sense, and Advanced is opposite in level.

  65. Question 65

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Luxuriant

    1. a. Leafless
    2. b. Bleak
    3. c. Lush
    4. d. Barren

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'Luxuriant' describes rich, abundant growth; its synonym is 'Lush'. Leafless, Bleak and Barren express the opposite idea.

  66. Question 66

    Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. She was feeling under the weather, so she decided to go to bed in order to sleep.

    1. a. bark up the wrong tree
    2. b. cry over spilled milk
    3. c. break a leg
    4. d. hit the sack

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'To hit the sack' means to go to bed for sleep - exactly what the segment states. Bark up the wrong tree = blame wrongly; cry over spilled milk = regret what cannot be undone; break a leg = good luck.

  67. Question 67

    Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given options.

    1. a. Battery
    2. b. Begining
    3. c. Bough
    4. d. Barrister

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The correct spelling is 'Beginning' with a double n after e (be-gin-ning). Battery, Bough and Barrister are correct.

  68. Question 68

    The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with an adverbial usage error. On the occasion of Teacher's Day, / the students of the community school / light applauded the performance / of the teachers.

    1. a. of the teachers.
    2. b. light applauded the performance
    3. c. On the occasion of Teacher's Day,
    4. d. the students of the community school

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: An adjective ('light') modifies the verb 'applauded'; an adverb is required - 'lightly applauded'. So the error lies in segment 2.

  69. Question 69

    Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Capable

    1. a. Considerate
    2. b. Incompetent
    3. c. Troublesome
    4. d. Garrulous

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'Capable' means able to do something well; its antonym is 'Incompetent' (not able). Considerate, Troublesome and Garrulous are unrelated.

  70. Question 70

    The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. (A) The dog barked loudly at the stranger, / (B) standing protective / (C) in front of its owner / (D) and alerting everyone in the vicinity.

    1. a. C
    2. b. A
    3. c. D
    4. d. B

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Segment (B) uses the adjective 'protective' for the verb 'standing'; the adverb 'protectively' is required. Option 4 corresponds to segment B.

  71. Question 71

    Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted word segment in the given sentence. If the sentence is grammatically correct, select 'No correction'. The report has written by the analyst.

    1. a. was writing
    2. b. was written
    3. c. No correction
    4. d. written

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The report receives the action, so passive voice is needed: 'has been written by' or, among the options, 'was written by'. 'Has written' is active and wrong.

  72. Question 72

    Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. I will never forget the feeling of receiving a prestigious award, with my parents sitting among the audience and jostling with their emotion.

    1. a. hiding their nervousness
    2. b. supporting my fear
    3. c. pray for me
    4. d. applauding my success

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: At an award ceremony parents in the audience would be 'applauding my success'; 'jostling with their emotion' is not idiomatic. The other options contradict the celebratory context.

  73. Question 73

    Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Strategic

    1. a. Hazy
    2. b. Cruel
    3. c. Trivial
    4. d. Wise

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'Strategic' implies something carefully planned and important; its antonym among the options is 'Trivial' (of little importance).

  74. Question 74

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Despite initial problems, the plan has been a ______ success.

    1. a. loud
    2. b. roaring
    3. c. sounding
    4. d. cracking

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'A roaring success' is the standard collocation meaning a huge success. The other words do not collocate with 'success' this way.

  75. Question 75

    Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

    1. a. Allegience
    2. b. Subservience
    3. c. Adherence
    4. d. Reverence

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The correct spelling is 'Allegiance' (a-l-l-e-g-i-a-n-c-e); there is no 'e' before '-ence'. The other three are correct.

  76. Question 76

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow to select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The impact of climate change on global agriculture is (1) ______ concern among scientists and policymakers. Rising temperatures and unpredictable weather patterns (2) ______ crop yields and food security. Droughts and floods, which are becoming increasingly frequent due to climate variability, (3) ______ the agricultural output in many regions. Consequently, farmers (4) ______ innovative strategies and technologies to (5) ______ their resilience to these changes.

    1. a. a decreasing
    2. b. a stable
    3. c. an increasing
    4. d. an irrelevant

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The article 'an' demands a vowel-initial word, leaving 'increasing' or 'irrelevant'. Climate change raises concern rather than making it irrelevant, so 'an increasing concern' fits.

  77. Question 77

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow to select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The impact of climate change on global agriculture is (1) ______ concern among scientists and policymakers. Rising temperatures and unpredictable weather patterns (2) ______ crop yields and food security. Droughts and floods, which are becoming increasingly frequent due to climate variability, (3) ______ the agricultural output in many regions. Consequently, farmers (4) ______ innovative strategies and technologies to (5) ______ their resilience to these changes.

    1. a. stabilise
    2. b. promote
    3. c. enhance
    4. d. jeopardise

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Unpredictable weather threatens food security, so it would 'jeopardise' crop yields. Stabilise/promote/enhance suggest a positive effect, contrary to the context.

  78. Question 78

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow to select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The impact of climate change on global agriculture is (1) ______ concern among scientists and policymakers. Rising temperatures and unpredictable weather patterns (2) ______ crop yields and food security. Droughts and floods, which are becoming increasingly frequent due to climate variability, (3) ______ the agricultural output in many regions. Consequently, farmers (4) ______ innovative strategies and technologies to (5) ______ their resilience to these changes.

    1. a. diminish
    2. b. increase
    3. c. augment
    4. d. bolster

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Frequent droughts and floods reduce output, so they 'diminish' agricultural production. Increase/augment/bolster mean the opposite.

  79. Question 79

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow to select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The impact of climate change on global agriculture is (1) ______ concern among scientists and policymakers. Rising temperatures and unpredictable weather patterns (2) ______ crop yields and food security. Droughts and floods, which are becoming increasingly frequent due to climate variability, (3) ______ the agricultural output in many regions. Consequently, farmers (4) ______ innovative strategies and technologies to (5) ______ their resilience to these changes.

    1. a. employs
    2. b. employing
    3. c. employed
    4. d. employ

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The plural present-tense subject 'farmers' takes the base verb 'employ'. Employed/employing break tense agreement.

  80. Question 80

    Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow to select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The impact of climate change on global agriculture is (1) ______ concern among scientists and policymakers. Rising temperatures and unpredictable weather patterns (2) ______ crop yields and food security. Droughts and floods, which are becoming increasingly frequent due to climate variability, (3) ______ the agricultural output in many regions. Consequently, farmers (4) ______ innovative strategies and technologies to (5) ______ their resilience to these changes.

    1. a. compromise
    2. b. reduce
    3. c. accept
    4. d. enhance

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Farmers adopt strategies 'to enhance their resilience' - i.e., improve it. Compromise/reduce weaken resilience and accept is unidiomatic here.

Full exam pattern

SSC GD Constable has 80 questions worth 160 marks. The section-wise split is below.

SectionQuestionsMarks
General Intelligence & Reasoning2040
General Knowledge & General Awareness2040
Elementary Mathematics2040
Hindi/English Language2040
Total80160

Verified against Clause 7.2 of the official notification — last checked on 1 August 2026.

Paper verification: This paper is verified from candidate recall. Staff Selection Commission (SSC) does not release an official question paper, so this is not a copy of an official PDF — it is based on the collective recall of candidates who sat the exam.

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Frequently asked questions

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