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UP Police Constable Previous Year Question Paper 2026

This is the solved previous year question paper for the real UP Police Constable exam held on 23 August 2024, Shift 1, with 150 questions. Attempt it in 120 minutes — it awards 2 marks for every correct answer, with no negative marking. Every answer is verified from candidate recall and comes with a full explanation below.

150 questions300 marks120 minOffline OMR

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UP Police Constable Previous Paper — 23 August 2024, Shift 1

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23 August 2024 · Shift 1

150 questions120 min+2 marksHindi + English

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UP Police Constable Previous Paper — 23 August 2024, Shift 1

प्रश्न की भाषा / Question language
Questions
150
Duration
120 minutes
Marking scheme
+2 for each correct · No negative marking

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All questions, options & explanations

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UP Police Constable Previous Paper — 23 August 2024, Shift 1 — View 150 questions
  1. Question 1

    Who wrote "The Scarlet Letter"?

    1. a. Mark Twain
    2. b. Herman Melville
    3. c. Washington Irving
    4. d. Nathaniel Hawthorne

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: "The Scarlet Letter" is an 1850 novel by American writer Nathaniel Hawthorne, set in Puritan New England and dealing with themes of sin and redemption.

  2. Question 2

    Where was the capital of the Pallava dynasty located?

    1. a. Thanjavur
    2. b. Mysore
    3. c. Kanchipuram
    4. d. Madurai

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The Pallava dynasty (roughly 3rd to 9th century CE) ruled from its capital at Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu, a city famed for Dravidian-style temple architecture.

  3. Question 3

    What does the Financial Stability Board (FSB) do?

    1. a. It provides financial assistance to developing countries.
    2. b. It manages the foreign exchange reserves of its member countries.
    3. c. It controls interest rates for central banks around the world.
    4. d. It works to ensure financial stability.

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Financial Stability Board, set up by G20 nations in 2009, monitors the global financial system and issues recommendations to promote stability — it does not lend money or manage reserves directly.

  4. Question 4

    Who was chosen as the brand ambassador of GST?

    1. a. Deepika Padukone
    2. b. Shilpa Shetty
    3. c. Shah Rukh Khan
    4. d. Amitabh Bachchan

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Central Board of Excise and Customs appointed Amitabh Bachchan as the brand ambassador for its GST awareness campaign ahead of the tax's rollout in July 2017.

  5. Question 5

    Which of the following lines forms the border between France and Germany?

    1. a. K-W Line
    2. b. 49th Parallel Line
    3. c. Siegfried Line
    4. d. Senger Line

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The Siegfried Line (called the Westwall in German) was a chain of defensive fortifications Germany built along its western border with France, used as a defence line in World War II.

  6. Question 6

    The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) functions under which ministry?

    1. a. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
    2. b. Ministry of External Affairs
    3. c. Ministry of Finance
    4. d. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: DGFT operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, framing India's foreign trade policy and issuing the Import Export Code (IEC) required for international trade.

  7. Question 7

    Which element is essential for the production of nuclear energy?

    1. a. Silicon
    2. b. Hydrogen
    3. c. Carbon
    4. d. Uranium

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Nuclear fission of heavy radioactive elements like Uranium-235 releases enormous energy, which nuclear power plants harness to generate electricity.

  8. Question 8

    Noida falls under which district of Uttar Pradesh?

    1. a. Bulandshahr
    2. b. Mathura
    3. c. Ghaziabad
    4. d. Gautam Buddh Nagar

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Noida city lies in Gautam Buddh Nagar district, which was formed in 1976 and is part of the National Capital Region (NCR).

  9. Question 9

    When is World Post Day observed?

    1. a. 3 October
    2. b. 15 October
    3. c. 10 October
    4. d. 9 October

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: World Post Day is observed every year on 9 October, marking the founding of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) in Bern, Switzerland, in 1874.

  10. Question 10

    Who was heading the Union Ministry of Home Affairs as of June 2024?

    1. a. Narendra Modi
    2. b. Nityanand Rai
    3. c. Amit Shah
    4. d. Rajnath Singh

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Amit Shah has served as India's Union Home Minister since May 2019 and continued in that role in June 2024 under the Modi government's third term.

  11. Question 11

    In which year was the Indian National Congress founded?

    1. a. 1905
    2. b. 1947
    3. c. 1857
    4. d. 1885

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Indian National Congress was founded on 28 December 1885 in Bombay, with its first session presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.

  12. Question 12

    Where was India's first airport located?

    1. a. Madras (Chennai)
    2. b. Bombay (Mumbai)
    3. c. Delhi
    4. d. Calcutta (Kolkata)

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Juhu Aerodrome, established in 1928 in Bombay (now Mumbai), was India's first civil aviation airport — it was from here that J.R.D. Tata flew India's first scheduled commercial flight in 1932.

  13. Question 13

    What is the GST registration threshold for businesses supplying services in India?

    1. a. ₹20 lakh
    2. b. ₹50 lakh
    3. c. ₹5 lakh
    4. d. ₹10 lakh

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The standard GST registration threshold for service providers is an annual turnover of ₹20 lakh, though it is lower at ₹10 lakh for special category states.

  14. Question 14

    What is the capital of the Republic of Croatia?

    1. a. Mexico City
    2. b. Dubrovnik
    3. c. Zagreb
    4. d. Amsterdam

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Zagreb is the capital and largest city of Croatia; Dubrovnik, though a well-known Croatian tourist city, is not the capital.

  15. Question 15

    In what way does information sharing become important in the fight against terrorism?

    1. a. It helps terrorist organisations coordinate attacks more effectively against security agencies.
    2. b. It improves relations with other countries.
    3. c. It helps authorities identify potential threats more quickly.
    4. d. It strengthens military capabilities.

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Sharing intelligence between security agencies and countries enables early identification of threats and helps foil terror plots, a core pillar of counter-terrorism strategy.

  16. Question 16

    Which neighbouring country of India is known as the "Land of the Thunder Dragon"?

    1. a. Myanmar
    2. b. Bhutan
    3. c. Nepal
    4. d. Bangladesh

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Bhutan is called "Druk Yul", or "Land of the Thunder Dragon", in the local language — a name rooted in Himalayan folklore about the thunderous storms of the region.

  17. Question 17

    Which of the following pollution types is cultural (accelerated) eutrophication?

    1. a. Soil pollution
    2. b. Water pollution
    3. c. Noise pollution
    4. d. Thermal pollution

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Cultural eutrophication occurs when excess nutrients from fertilisers and sewage cause explosive algae growth in water bodies, depleting oxygen levels — it is a form of water pollution.

  18. Question 18

    Who was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India during the 1946 demonetisation?

    1. a. Urjit Patel
    2. b. Chintaman Dwarkanath Deshmukh
    3. c. Shaktikanta Das
    4. d. D. Subbarao

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: C.D. Deshmukh was the first Indian Governor of the RBI, serving from August 1943 to June 1949 — it was during his tenure, in January 1946, that ₹500, ₹1,000 and ₹10,000 notes were demonetised.

  19. Question 19

    Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?

    1. a. Part IV
    2. b. Part V
    3. c. Part II
    4. d. Part III

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are laid out in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution, inspired by Ireland's constitution — they set welfare goals for the state but are not enforceable in court.

  20. Question 20

    Who wrote the book 'A Life Misspent'?

    1. a. Jawaharlal Nehru
    2. b. Suryakant Tripathi 'Nirala'
    3. c. Mahadevi Verma
    4. d. Maithili Sharan Gupt

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'A Life Misspent' is the English translation, by Satti Khanna, of 'Kulli Bhaat' — a memoir by Hindi poet Suryakant Tripathi 'Nirala' about the life of his close friend.

  21. Question 21

    The main reason for the blue colour of the sky is ________.

    1. a. scattering of sunlight by air molecules
    2. b. scattering of white light
    3. c. presence of water vapour
    4. d. absorption of blue light by air

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Air molecules in the atmosphere scatter the blue component of sunlight far more than other colours (Rayleigh scattering) because blue light has a shorter wavelength — this is why the sky appears blue.

  22. Question 22

    Raman Subba Row, who recently passed away, was associated with which sport?

    1. a. Cricket
    2. b. Table Tennis
    3. c. Football
    4. d. Hockey

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Raman Subba Row was a former English cricketer who played 13 Tests between 1958 and 1961, later serving as Chairman of the Test and County Cricket Board and an ICC match referee; he died in April 2024 at the age of 92.

  23. Question 23

    What is the name of the longest river in Peninsular India?

    1. a. Godavari
    2. b. Krishna
    3. c. Mahanadi
    4. d. Narmada

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Godavari, originating at Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flowing into the Bay of Bengal, is Peninsular India's longest river at about 1,465 km — often called the "Dakshin Ganga" (Ganges of the South).

  24. Question 24

    What is the full form of NHRC?

    1. a. National Humanity Rights Commission, India
    2. b. National Human Rights Commission, India
    3. c. Natural Human Rights Commission, India
    4. d. National Human Righteous Commission, India

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: NHRC — the National Human Rights Commission — was set up under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and its correct full form is "National Human Rights Commission, India". The source's printed answer key marked the option that reads "Natural" instead of "National", which is factually wrong.

  25. Question 25

    The year 1985 was declared the International Year of _________.

    1. a. Children
    2. b. Women
    3. c. the Blind
    4. d. Youth

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The UN General Assembly declared 1985 the International Youth Year, with the theme "Participation, Development, Peace", aimed at drawing attention to young people's concerns and their role in society.

  26. Question 26

    ........... research methods allow probing respondents further and following up based on their responses.

    1. a. Mixed
    2. b. Qualitative
    3. c. Action
    4. d. Quantitative

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Qualitative research methods (like interviews and focus groups) use open-ended, flexible conversation, letting a researcher probe deeper based on a respondent's answer — unlike quantitative research, which relies on fixed, structured questions.

  27. Question 27

    What is the full form of BRI?

    1. a. Belt and Road Initiative
    2. b. Basic and Road Initiative
    3. c. Belt and Resource Initiative
    4. d. Belt and Republic Industry

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is a global infrastructure development strategy China launched in 2013, aiming to connect Asia, Europe and Africa through road, rail and maritime routes.

  28. Question 28

    When was India's first National Agriculture Policy announced?

    1. a. March 2004
    2. b. January 2004
    3. c. July 2000
    4. d. March 2002

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: India's first National Agriculture Policy was announced in July 2000, aiming to raise agricultural growth to 4% per year and ensure the efficient use of resources.

  29. Question 29

    In the year ________, the UN Commission on Human Rights was replaced by the UN Human Rights Council for the enforcement of international human rights law.

    1. a. 2006
    2. b. 1998
    3. c. 2000
    4. d. 2001

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The UN General Assembly established the Human Rights Council through a resolution in March 2006, replacing the older Commission on Human Rights; the Council held its first session in June 2006.

  30. Question 30

    Who is the first person to run the entire length of Africa?

    1. a. Sisay Lemma
    2. b. Kenenisa Bekele
    3. c. Dennis Kimetto
    4. d. Russ Cook

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: British runner Russ Cook, known as "Hardest Geezer", completed a roughly 16,000 km run from Cape Agulhas in South Africa to Tunisia in April 2024, becoming the first person to claim to have run the entire length of Africa.

  31. Question 31

    Against which country has the Indian Agricultural Research Institute demanded legal action for cultivating India's protected basmati varieties?

    1. a. Myanmar
    2. b. Bangladesh
    3. c. Afghanistan
    4. d. Pakistan

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) demanded legal action after Pakistani seed firms were found cultivating and selling its protected Pusa Basmati varieties (such as Pusa Basmati-1121) under different names.

  32. Question 32

    Which Indian state is known for its unique Warli painting?

    1. a. Maharashtra
    2. b. Rajasthan
    3. c. Madhya Pradesh
    4. d. Odisha

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Warli painting is the traditional art of Maharashtra's Warli tribal community, using simple white geometric shapes — triangles, circles and lines — on an ochre background to depict scenes of daily life.

  33. Question 33

    "Chikankari" is a traditional embroidery style that originated in which city of Uttar Pradesh?

    1. a. Lucknow
    2. b. Noida
    3. c. Prayagraj
    4. d. Varanasi

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Chikankari is believed to have originated in Lucknow, where this delicate white-thread embroidery style flourished from Mughal times and remains one of the city's signature crafts today.

  34. Question 34

    What is the primary cause of ocean acidification?

    1. a. Absorption of CO₂ by seawater
    2. b. Overfishing
    3. c. Oil spills
    4. d. Rise in seawater temperature

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Oceans absorb a large share of the excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which forms carbonic acid and lowers seawater pH over time — this process is called ocean acidification.

  35. Question 35

    Which social media platform has a feature called "Streaks" to encourage continuous communication between users?

    1. a. Twitter
    2. b. Instagram
    3. c. Snapchat
    4. d. Facebook

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Snapchat's "Snapstreak" feature is built when two users exchange snaps with each other within every 24-hour period on consecutive days, encouraging regular back-and-forth communication.

  36. Question 36

    ......... uses images containing malicious files to help a hacker steal your account information or infect your computer.

    1. a. Image phishing
    2. b. Catfishing
    3. c. VPN
    4. d. Smishing

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: In image phishing, an attacker hides malicious code or a link inside an ordinary-looking picture; opening it can infect the victim's device or lead to their account information being stolen.

  37. Question 37

    Which of the following is not a social media platform?

    1. a. Instagram
    2. b. Facebook
    3. c. Twitter
    4. d. Google

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Google is primarily a search engine and technology services company, while Instagram, Twitter (X) and Facebook are social media platforms built for users to connect and share content.

  38. Question 38

    ......... targets specific individuals with deception in an attempt to compromise the security of the organisation they work for.

    1. a. Spamming
    2. b. Spear phishing
    3. c. Cyberstalking
    4. d. Stealth

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Unlike generic spam, spear phishing is a targeted, personalised fraudulent message aimed at specific employees of an organisation, designed to trick them into giving an attacker access to the organisation's network.

  39. Question 39

    एक ओर अजगरहि लखि एक ओर मृगराय। विकल बटोही बीच ही परयो मूरछा खाय।। इन पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त रस है:

    1. a. करुण रस
    2. b. रौद्र रस
    3. c. भयानक रस
    4. d. वीर रस

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: जब कोई व्यक्ति भयंकर दृश्य (यहाँ अजगर व मृगराज के बीच फँसा बटोही) देखकर भय से मूर्च्छित हो जाता है, तो वह भयानक रस का उदाहरण है — भय ही भयानक रस का स्थायी भाव है।

  40. Question 40

    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्दालंकार नहीं है?

    1. a. श्लेष अलंकार
    2. b. रूपक अलंकार
    3. c. अनुप्रास अलंकार
    4. d. यमक अलंकार

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: शब्दालंकार वे अलंकार हैं जो शब्दों की बनावट/ध्वनि पर निर्भर करते हैं, जैसे अनुप्रास, यमक और श्लेष। रूपक अलंकार अर्थालंकार है क्योंकि इसमें उपमेय-उपमान का अभेद अर्थ के स्तर पर होता है, शब्द के स्तर पर नहीं।

  41. Question 41

    जब दो व्यंजन एक साथ मिलते हैं, तो उन्हें क्या कहते हैं?

    1. a. अंतस्थ
    2. b. महाप्राण
    3. c. अल्पप्राण
    4. d. संयुक्त व्यंजन

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: दो या दो से अधिक व्यंजनों के मेल से बनने वाले वर्ण को संयुक्त व्यंजन कहते हैं, जैसे क्ष (क्+ष), त्र (त्+र), ज्ञ (ज्+ञ)। अंतस्थ (य,र,ल,व) और महाप्राण/अल्पप्राण (श्वास-बल के आधार पर वर्गीकरण) पूरी तरह अलग वर्गीकरण हैं।

  42. Question 42

    'अगम - आगम' शब्द-युग्म का सही अर्थ है:

    1. a. उत्पत्ति-दुर्लभ
    2. b. स्वानुभूत-अनजान
    3. c. दुर्लभ - उत्पत्ति
    4. d. शास्त्र - शास्त्री

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'अगम' का अर्थ है दुर्लभ या दुर्गम (जिस तक पहुँचना कठिन हो), जबकि 'आगम' का अर्थ है उत्पत्ति, आगमन या शास्त्र। अतः सही अर्थ-युग्म है 'दुर्लभ - उत्पत्ति', क्रम इसी प्रकार होना चाहिए, उल्टे क्रम में नहीं।

  43. Question 43

    निम्नलिखित में से मूक का अनेकार्थक शब्द कौन-सा नहीं है?

    1. a. शांत
    2. b. विवश
    3. c. गूँगा
    4. d. चुप

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'मूक' का अर्थ है गूँगा, शांत, चुप — यानी बोलने में असमर्थ या मौन। 'विवश' का अर्थ है लाचार या मजबूर, जिसका मौन/वाणी से सीधा कोई सम्बन्ध नहीं है, अतः यह मूक का पर्याय नहीं है।

  44. Question 44

    निजवाचक सर्वनाम का प्रयोग किस वाक्य में हुआ है?

    1. a. अपनों से क्या छिपाना
    2. b. आप भला तो जग भला
    3. c. यह मेरी निजी पुस्तक है
    4. d. आज अपनापन कहाँ है

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: निजवाचक सर्वनाम वह है जो कर्ता की ओर ही लौटकर उसे स्वयं (स्वयं/अपने-आप के अर्थ में) इंगित करे — 'आप भला तो जग भला' में 'आप' का प्रयोग 'स्वयं' के अर्थ में हुआ है, न कि आदरसूचक सर्वनाम के रूप में। शेष विकल्पों में 'निजी', 'अपनापन', 'अपनों' विशेषण/संज्ञा हैं, सर्वनाम नहीं।

  45. Question 45

    'क्या भूलूँ क्या याद करूँ' हरिवंशराय बच्चन की आत्मकथा श्रृंखला का कौन-सा भाग है?

    1. a. दूसरा
    2. b. पहला
    3. c. चौथा
    4. d. तीसरा

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: हरिवंशराय बच्चन की आत्मकथा चार भागों में है: 'क्या भूलूँ क्या याद करूँ' (पहला भाग), 'नीड़ का निर्माण फिर-फिर' (दूसरा भाग), 'बसेरे से दूर' (तीसरा भाग) और 'दशद्वार से सोपान तक' (चौथा भाग)। अतः यह पहला भाग है।

  46. Question 46

    हिंदी भाषा के लिए साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार के प्रथम विजेता कौन थे?

    1. a. माखनलाल चतुर्वेदी
    2. b. विष्णु डे
    3. c. हरिवंशराय बच्चन
    4. d. सुमित्रानंदन पंत

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कारों की शुरुआत 1955 में हुई थी। हिंदी भाषा के लिए यह पुरस्कार सबसे पहले माखनलाल चतुर्वेदी को उनके काव्य-संग्रह 'हिम तरंगिणी' के लिए दिया गया था।

  47. Question 47

    निम्नलिखित में से 'वयोवृद्ध' शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद कौन-सा है?

    1. a. व्ययः + वृद्ध
    2. b. वाया: + वृद्ध
    3. c. वयो: + वृद्ध
    4. d. वयः + वृद्ध

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'वयोवृद्ध' = 'वयः' (आयु) + 'वृद्ध' (बढ़ा हुआ/बूढ़ा) है। यह विसर्ग संधि का उदाहरण है — जब विसर्ग (:) के बाद वर्ग के तीसरे-चौथे-पाँचवें वर्ण या य्, र्, ल्, व्, ह् में से कोई घोष वर्ण आता है, तो विसर्ग 'ओ' में बदल जाता है (वयः+वृद्ध=वयोवृद्ध, मनः+रथ=मनोरथ)।

  48. Question 48

    2019 का साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार किस रचनाकार को दिया गया?

    1. a. नंदकिशोर आचार्य
    2. b. रमेश कुंतल मेघ
    3. c. रामदरश मिश्र
    4. d. काशीनाथ सिंह

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 2019 का साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार (हिंदी) कवि नंदकिशोर आचार्य को उनकी काव्य-कृति 'उजाले की छाया के लिए' पर दिया गया था।

  49. Question 49

    'देशप्रेम' में कौन-सा समास है?

    1. a. द्विगु समास
    2. b. बहुव्रीहि समास
    3. c. अव्ययीभाव समास
    4. d. तत्पुरुष समास

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'देशप्रेम' का विग्रह है 'देश के लिए प्रेम' — यहाँ कारक-चिह्न 'के लिए' का लोप होकर दोनों पद जुड़े हैं, जो तत्पुरुष समास (सम्प्रदान तत्पुरुष) की पहचान है। यह न तो संख्यावाचक (द्विगु), न ही अन्य-अर्थ-प्रधान (बहुव्रीहि), न ही अव्यय-प्रधान (अव्ययीभाव) है।

  50. Question 50

    'जुबान पर लगाम न होना' मुहावरे का सही अर्थ चुनिए:

    1. a. सदैव कठोर वचन कहना
    2. b. सर्वत्र अपनी वाग्मिता दिखाना
    3. c. स्पष्टवादी होना
    4. d. अनावश्यक रूप से स्पष्टवादी होना

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'जुबान पर लगाम न होना' का अर्थ है बिना सोचे-समझे, बेलगाम होकर कुछ भी बोल देना — यानी जरूरत से ज़्यादा या अनावश्यक रूप से स्पष्टवादी/मुखर हो जाना, बात कहने में किसी संयम का न होना।

  51. Question 51

    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा 'अमृत' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है?

    1. a. सोम
    2. b. अमिय
    3. c. सुधा
    4. d. क्षीर

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'अमृत' के पर्यायवाची हैं सोम, अमिय, सुधा, पीयूष आदि। 'क्षीर' का अर्थ है दूध — यह अमृत का नहीं बल्कि 'दुग्ध' का पर्याय है, इसलिए यह इस सूची में नहीं आता।

  52. Question 52

    कौन-सा वर्ण दन्त्य नहीं है?

    1. a. द
    2. b. ट
    3. c. त
    4. d. ध

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: त वर्ग (त, थ, द, ध, न) के सभी वर्ण दन्त्य (जीभ की नोक दांतों से स्पर्श करके बोले जाने वाले) होते हैं। 'ट' ट-वर्ग (ट, ठ, ड, ढ, ण) का वर्ण है, जो मूर्धन्य (तालु के ऊपरी भाग/मूर्धा से बोला जाने वाला) है, दन्त्य नहीं।

  53. Question 53

    'मैंने आम खा लिया है' वाक्य में प्रयुक्त काल है:

    1. a. सामान्य भूतकाल
    2. b. पूर्ण भूतकाल
    3. c. आसन्न भूतकाल
    4. d. अपूर्ण भूतकाल

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: आसन्न भूतकाल वह काल है जिसमें क्रिया अभी-अभी, तुरंत ही पूर्ण हुई बताई जाए, जिसकी पहचान क्रिया के साथ 'लिया है/ली है/लिए हैं' जैसा रूप है — 'खा लिया है' इसी रूप में है, अतः यह आसन्न भूतकाल है।

  54. Question 54

    'किसी एक में ही आस्था रखने वाला' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द बताइए।

    1. a. अनन्य
    2. b. अनिकेत
    3. c. अनुत्तीर्ण
    4. d. अनुमोदन

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'अनन्य' का शाब्दिक अर्थ है 'जिसके अतिरिक्त अन्य कोई न हो' — अर्थात जो केवल एक ही में समर्पित/आस्थावान हो (जैसे अनन्य भक्त)। 'अनिकेत' का अर्थ है बेघर, 'अनुत्तीर्ण' का अर्थ है असफल, 'अनुमोदन' का अर्थ है स्वीकृति — इनका इस भाव से कोई सम्बन्ध नहीं।

  55. Question 55

    निम्नलिखित शब्दों में प्रयुक्त प्रत्यय किस विकल्प में ठीक-ठीक प्रदर्शित किए गए हैं? शब्द - धमाका, लड़ाकू, उड़ाक, छिलका

    1. a. आका, आकू, आक, का
    2. b. आक, का, आका, आकू
    3. c. आकू, आका, आक, का
    4. d. का, आकू, आका, आक

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: धमाका = धम् + आका (प्रत्यय: आका), लड़ाकू = लड़ + आकू (प्रत्यय: आकू), उड़ाक = उड़ + आक (प्रत्यय: आक), छिलका = छिल + का (प्रत्यय: का)। इसी क्रम में विकल्प (A) 'आका, आकू, आक, का' सही सुमेल है।

  56. Question 56

    शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए।

    1. a. मध्यकालीन युग में कलाओं की बहुत उन्नति हुई।
    2. b. साहब ने कहा है कि, किसी को अन्दर न जाने दिया जाए।
    3. c. इस समय मोहन की आयु 20 वर्ष है।
    4. d. वे चाहे भले ही न आएँ, पर तुम्हें आना होगा।

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: विकल्प (B) में 'कि' के तुरंत बाद अनावश्यक अल्पविराम है; (C) में 'आयु ... वर्ष है' के स्थान पर स्त्रीलिंग संज्ञा 'आयु' के अनुरूप 'आयु ... वर्ष की है' होना चाहिए; (D) में 'चाहे' और 'भले ही' दोनों समानार्थी योजक एक साथ प्रयुक्त होकर पुनरुक्ति दोष बनाते हैं। केवल (A) दोषरहित है।

  57. Question 57

    सदा एकवचन में प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्दों को चुनिए:

    1. a. वर्षा, जनता
    2. b. प्राण, बाल
    3. c. होश, लोग
    4. d. हस्ताक्षर, जनता

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'वर्षा' और 'जनता' सदैव एकवचन में ही प्रयुक्त होते हैं, इनका बहुवचन रूप प्रचलित नहीं है। इसके विपरीत 'प्राण', 'होश', 'हस्ताक्षर', 'लोग' जैसे शब्द सदैव बहुवचन में ही प्रयुक्त होते हैं — इनका कोई एकवचन रूप व्यवहार में नहीं है।

  58. Question 58

    'राजा' शब्द के लिए पर्यायवाची शब्द चुनिए:

    1. a. गोविंद
    2. b. लंकेश
    3. c. रघुबीर
    4. d. नरेंद्र

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: 'नरेंद्र' (नर+इंद्र = मनुष्यों में इंद्र के समान) का सामान्य अर्थ 'राजा' है, अतः यह इसका पर्यायवाची है। 'गोविंद' कृष्ण का, 'लंकेश' रावण का और 'रघुबीर' राम का विशिष्ट नाम है — ये किसी भी राजा के लिए सामान्य पर्यायवाची नहीं, बल्कि विशेष व्यक्ति-नाम हैं।

  59. Question 59

    निम्नलिखित में से वाक्यों के शुद्ध रूप का चयन कीजिए:

    1. a. भारत में अनेक जातियाँ हैं।
    2. b. भारत में अनेक जाति हैं।
    3. c. भारत में अनेकों जाति हैं।
    4. d. भारत में अनेकों जातियाँ हैं।

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'अनेक' शब्द स्वयं बहुवचन-सूचक है, अतः इसके साथ संज्ञा भी बहुवचन में ही आनी चाहिए ('अनेक जातियाँ', 'जाति' नहीं) — यह विकल्प (B) व (C) को अशुद्ध बनाता है। साथ ही 'अनेकों' रूप स्वयं अशुद्ध है क्योंकि 'अनेक' पहले से बहुवचन है, उस पर पुनः बहुवचन-चिह्न 'ओं' लगाना पुनरुक्ति दोष है — यह (C) व (D) दोनों को अशुद्ध बनाता है। केवल 'भारत में अनेक जातियाँ हैं' शुद्ध है।

  60. Question 60

    विस्मयबोधक चिह्न है:

    1. a. विवरण चिह्न (:-)
    2. b. विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न (!)
    3. c. अल्पविराम (,)
    4. d. योजक चिह्न (-)

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: आश्चर्य, हर्ष, शोक जैसे भावों को व्यक्त करने वाले वाक्य के अंत में विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न '!' लगाया जाता है। ',' अल्पविराम है और '-' योजक/निर्देशक चिह्न है, ये विस्मयसूचक नहीं हैं।

  61. Question 61

    किस वाक्य में 'अच्छा' शब्द का प्रयोग विशेषण के रूप में हुआ है?

    1. a. अच्छा, तुम घर जाओ।
    2. b. तुमने अच्छा किया जो आ गए।
    3. c. अच्छा है वह अभी आ जाए।
    4. d. यह स्थान बहुत अच्छा है।

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: विशेषण वह शब्द है जो सीधे किसी संज्ञा की विशेषता बताए। वाक्य (D) में 'अच्छा' सीधे संज्ञा 'स्थान' की विशेषता बता रहा है, अतः यह विशेषण है। (A) में यह विस्मयादिबोधक/स्वीकृतिसूचक शब्द है, (B) व (C) में यह क्रिया/स्थिति से जुड़ा भाव व्यक्त करता है, संज्ञा को सीधे विशेषित नहीं करता।

  62. Question 62

    'प्रेमसागर' के रचनाकार हैं:

    1. a. लल्लू लाल
    2. b. सुन्दर दास
    3. c. सदल मिश्र
    4. d. उसमान

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'प्रेमसागर' (1803) की रचना लल्लू लाल ने खड़ीबोली गद्य में की थी, जो फोर्ट विलियम कॉलेज, कलकत्ता से जुड़े थे। यह आधुनिक हिंदी गद्य की आरंभिक और महत्वपूर्ण कृतियों में से एक मानी जाती है।

  63. Question 63

    'अनावर्त' शब्द का समभिन्नार्थक क्या है?

    1. a. पृथ्वी
    2. b. निरादर
    3. c. न दोहराया हुआ
    4. d. अयोग्य आचरण

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'अनावर्त' का अर्थ है 'न दोहराया हुआ' या 'न लौटने वाला' (आवर्त = चक्र/पुनरावृत्ति, अन = नहीं)। यह प्रायः 'अनावृत' (जो ढका न हो, खुला हुआ) जैसे समोच्चरित शब्द से भ्रमित किया जाता है, पर दोनों के अर्थ भिन्न हैं।

  64. Question 64

    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द पुल्लिंग है?

    1. a. क्षेत्र
    2. b. रीति
    3. c. क्षमा
    4. d. घटना

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: 'क्षेत्र' (यह क्षेत्र) पुल्लिंग शब्द है। 'रीति', 'क्षमा' और 'घटना' — ये तीनों स्त्रीलिंग शब्द हैं (यह रीति, यह क्षमा, यह घटना — तीनों स्त्रीलिंग क्रिया-रूप लेते हैं)।

  65. Question 65

    'वह आई हो तो मेरी चिट्ठी उसे दे देना।' इस वाक्य में कौन-सा काल है?

    1. a. तात्कालिक वर्तमान
    2. b. सामान्य वर्तमान
    3. c. संदिग्ध वर्तमान
    4. d. संभाव्य वर्तमान

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: संभाव्य वर्तमान में क्रिया के वर्तमान में होने की मात्र सम्भावना/शर्त व्यक्त होती है, इसका रूप 'हो' पर टिका होता है (न कि 'होगा' पर, जो संदिग्ध वर्तमान की पहचान है)। 'वह आई हो तो' शर्तिया वाक्य में 'हो' के प्रयोग के कारण संभाव्य वर्तमान है।

  66. Question 66

    'अशोच – अशौच' शब्द-युग्म का सही विकल्प चुनिए:

    1. a. बुराई - अयोग्य
    2. b. बिना सोच के - अशुद्धि
    3. c. मूर्ख - निडर
    4. d. आँख-काजल

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'अशोच' का अर्थ है 'बिना सोचे-विचारे' (विचारशून्य), जबकि 'अशौच' का अर्थ है 'अशुद्धि' (विशेषतः सूतक/पातक के समय की अपवित्रता)। दोनों शब्द सुनने में मिलते-जुलते हैं पर अर्थ में भिन्न हैं, और सही युग्म-अर्थ है 'बिना सोच के - अशुद्धि'।

  67. Question 67

    'आग लगने पर कुआँ खोदना' – इस लोकोक्ति का अर्थ बताइए:

    1. a. मुसीबत आने पर घबरा जाना
    2. b. जल्दी से कार्य करना
    3. c. कुआँ खोदकर पुण्य कमाना
    4. d. संकट के समय बचाव के लिए सोचना

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: यह लोकोक्ति उस स्थिति के लिए प्रयुक्त होती है जब कोई व्यक्ति पहले से कोई तैयारी न करके संकट आने पर ही उसके बचाव का उपाय सोचना शुरू करता है — जैसे घर में आग लगने के बाद ही कुआँ खोदा जाए, जो बहुत देर हो चुकने पर की गई तैयारी है।

  68. Question 68

    'जिसे सरलता से पढ़ा जा सके' के लिए एक शब्द है:

    1. a. स्थानापन्न
    2. b. पाठ्य
    3. c. सुपाठ्य
    4. d. सुषुप्सा

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'सुपाठ्य' का शाब्दिक अर्थ है 'अच्छी तरह/सरलता से पढ़े जाने योग्य' (सु = अच्छा + पाठ्य = पढ़े जाने योग्य)। 'पाठ्य' का अर्थ है 'पढ़ाई के योग्य/पाठ्यक्रम सम्बन्धी', जो सरलता के भाव को व्यक्त नहीं करता।

  69. Question 69

    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से शब्द में उपसर्ग नहीं है?

    1. a. प्रभाव
    2. b. ओढ़ना
    3. c. अपवाद
    4. d. पराजय

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: 'प्रभाव' में 'प्र' उपसर्ग है, 'अपवाद' में 'अप' उपसर्ग है, 'पराजय' में 'परा' उपसर्ग है। 'ओढ़ना' एक मूल क्रिया-शब्द है जिसमें कोई उपसर्ग नहीं जुड़ा है — इसका आरम्भिक 'ओ' धातु का ही हिस्सा है, कोई उपसर्ग नहीं।

  70. Question 70

    समास का शाब्दिक अर्थ है:

    1. a. विग्रह
    2. b. विच्छेद
    3. c. संक्षिप्त
    4. d. विस्तृत

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 'समास' शब्द का शाब्दिक अर्थ है 'संक्षिप्त' या 'संक्षेप' — अर्थात दो या अधिक शब्दों को छोटा करके एक पद में मिलाना। इसके विपरीत प्रक्रिया, जिसमें समस्त पद को पुनः विस्तार से खोला जाता है, उसे 'समास-विग्रह' कहते हैं — 'विग्रह' व 'विच्छेद' समास के विपरीत भाव को व्यक्त करते हैं, इसके अर्थ को नहीं।

  71. Question 71

    निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमनें जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला, धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव विकास को एकांगी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बन्द गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है, तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु विस्फोट को मानव प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के सम्बन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है। आधुनिक मानव विकास को सर्वांगीण नहीं कहा जा सकता है, क्योंकि —

    1. a. साहित्य, धर्म, कला आदि मानव चेतना से निर्वासित हैं।
    2. b. जीवन में आशातीत गतिशीलता का समावेश नहीं हुआ।
    3. c. विकास के सूत्र मानव के हाथ में हैं।
    4. d. भौतिक परिवेश पूर्णतया परिवर्तित हो गया है।

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: गद्यांश के अनुसार साहित्य, कला, धर्म और दर्शन को मानव-चेतना से बहिष्कृत करके मानव विकास को 'एकांगी' (एकतरफा) बना दिया गया है — यही कारण है कि इसे 'सर्वांगीण' विकास नहीं कहा जा सकता, चाहे भौतिक प्रगति कितनी भी हुई हो।

  72. Question 72

    निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमनें जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला, धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव विकास को एकांगी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बन्द गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है, तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु विस्फोट को मानव प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के सम्बन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है। अणु विस्फोट को मानवतावादी की मर्यादा देना तभी सम्भव है, जब व्यक्ति की —

    1. a. क्षुद्रता जब राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाए।
    2. b. उदात्त भावनाओं को विकसित किया जाए।
    3. c. क्षुद्रता को राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता न बनने दिया जाए।
    4. d. क्षुद्र भावनाओं का उन्नयन हो।

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: गद्यांश कहता है कि यदि व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाए तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इसलिए अणु विस्फोट को मानवीय मर्यादा तभी मिल सकती है जब व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता को राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बनने ही न दिया जाए।

  73. Question 73

    निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमनें जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला, धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव विकास को एकांगी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बन्द गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है, तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु विस्फोट को मानव प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के सम्बन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है। आज का मानव अपने व्यक्तित्व और अस्तित्व के प्रति इसलिए शंकालु है, क्योंकि —

    1. a. वह विज्ञान की विध्वंसक शक्तियों से भयभीत है।
    2. b. उसका आत्मविश्वास लुप्त होता जा रहा है।
    3. c. मानव ईश्वर के प्रति आस्थावान नहीं है।
    4. d. वह सीमित भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी है।

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: गद्यांश के समग्र भाव — विज्ञान के भस्मासुर बन जाने और परमाणु-विनाश की सम्भावना — के अनुसार, आज का मानव अपने अस्तित्व के प्रति शंकाग्रस्त इसलिए है क्योंकि वह विज्ञान की विध्वंसक शक्तियों से भयभीत है। विकल्प (D) गद्यांश से ही विपरीत है, क्योंकि पाठ में मानव को 'अपरिसीम' (सीमाहीन) भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी बताया गया है, 'सीमित' का नहीं।

  74. Question 74

    निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमनें जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला, धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव विकास को एकांगी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बन्द गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है, तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु विस्फोट को मानव प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के सम्बन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है। हमारी विज्ञानाधृत शिक्षा की सर्वाधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण देन है?

    1. a. जीवन का एकांगी विकास।
    2. b. गतिशील जीवन का प्रत्यावर्तन।
    3. c. जीवन का अपरिसीम भौतिक विकास।
    4. d. जीवन का सर्वांगीण विकास।

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: गद्यांश में मानव को 'अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी' बताया गया है, जो वैज्ञानिक शिक्षा का ही परिणाम है — अतः विज्ञानाधृत शिक्षा की सबसे बड़ी देन जीवन का असीमित/अपरिसीम भौतिक विकास है, न कि सर्वांगीण विकास (जो गद्यांश के अनुसार एकांगी ही रह गया है)।

  75. Question 75

    निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: शिक्षा को वैज्ञानिक और प्राविधिक मूलाधार देकर हमनें जहाँ भौतिक परिवेश को पूर्णतया परिवर्तित कर दिया है और जीवन को अप्रत्याशित गतिशीलता दे दी है, वहाँ साहित्य, कला, धर्म और दर्शन को अपनी चेतना से बहिष्कृत कर मानव विकास को एकांगी बना दिया है। पिछली शताब्दी में विकास के सूत्र प्रकृति के हाथ से निकलकर मनुष्य के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं, विज्ञान के हाथ में पहुँच गए हैं और इस बन्द गली में पहुँचने का अर्थ मानव जाति का नाश भी हो सकता है। इसलिए नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए। व्यक्ति की क्षुद्रता यदि राष्ट्र की क्षुद्रता बन जाती है, तो विज्ञान भस्मासुर बन जाता है। इस सत्य को प्रत्येक क्षण सामने रखकर ही अणु विस्फोट को मानव प्रेम और लोकहित की मर्यादा दे सकेंगे। अपरिसीम भौतिक शक्तियों का स्वामी मानव आज अपने व्यक्तित्व के प्रति आस्थावान नहीं है और प्रत्येक क्षण अपने अस्तित्व के सम्बन्ध में शंकाग्रस्त है। मानव जीवन को भस्मासुर बनने से कैसे रोका जा सकता है?

    1. a. प्रकृति-जगत का पूर्ण स्वामित्व प्राप्त करके।
    2. b. मानव सभ्यता का विनाश करके।
    3. c. भौतिक जीवन-मूल्यों का निर्धारण करके।
    4. d. नैतिक-आत्मिक मूल्यों को विकसित करके।

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: गद्यांश स्पष्ट कहता है — 'नैतिक और आत्मिक मूल्यों को साथ-साथ विकसित करने की आवश्यकता है, जिससे विज्ञान हमारे लिए भस्मासुर का हाथ न बन जाए' — अर्थात नैतिक-आत्मिक मूल्यों का विकास ही विज्ञान को भस्मासुर बनने से रोकने का उपाय है।

  76. Question 76

    If p > q = p² + q³ and p < q = p³ − q², then (1 > 2) < 3 =

    1. a. 720
    2. b. 840
    3. c. 600
    4. d. 480

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: First evaluate (1 > 2) using the rule p > q = p² + q³ with p=1, q=2: 1²+2³ = 1+8 = 9. Then evaluate 9 < 3 using the rule p < q = p³ − q² with p=9, q=3: 9³−3² = 729−9 = 720.

  77. Question 77

    Find the highest common factor (HCF) of 0.05, 0.5, 0.25 and 1.25.

    1. a. 1.25
    2. b. 0.25
    3. c. 0.05
    4. d. 0.5

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Write all numbers to two decimal places: 0.05, 0.50, 0.25, 1.25 — i.e. as hundredths: 5, 50, 25, 125. HCF(5, 50, 25, 125) = 5, so the HCF of the original decimals is 0.05.

  78. Question 78

    Find the smallest number which, when divided by 4, 6, 7, 8 and 9, leaves a remainder of 3 in each case.

    1. a. 501
    2. b. 510
    3. c. 507
    4. d. 504

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: LCM(4, 6, 7, 8, 9) = 504. Since a remainder of 3 must be left with each divisor, the required number = 504 + 3 = 507.

  79. Question 79

    If the cost price of 30 tables is equal to the selling price of 40 tables, what is the loss percentage?

    1. a. 25%
    2. b. 37.5%
    3. c. 26%
    4. d. 30%

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Let the CP of 1 table be 1 unit. CP of 30 tables = 30 = SP of 40 tables, so SP of 1 table = 30/40 = 0.75. Loss% = (1 − 0.75)/1 × 100 = 25%.

  80. Question 80

    A fruit seller buys some oranges at the rate of 4 for ₹10, and an equal number of oranges again at the rate of 5 for ₹10. He then sells the entire lot at the rate of 9 for ₹20. What is his loss or profit percentage?

    1. a. Neither loss nor profit
    2. b. Loss of 12%
    3. c. Loss of 1 19/81 %
    4. d. Profit of 1 19/81 %

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Assume 20 oranges are bought each time (LCM of 4 and 5). First batch cost = (20/4)×10 = ₹50, second batch cost = (20/5)×10 = ₹40. Total oranges = 40, total cost = ₹90. Selling all 40 oranges at the rate 9 per ₹20 gives SP = (40/9)×20 = ₹800/9. Loss = 90 − 800/9 = 10/9. Loss% = (10/9)/90 × 100 = 100/81 = 1 19/81%.

  81. Question 81

    Two varieties of rice cost ₹11 per kg and ₹21 per kg. Find the ratio in which the two varieties must be mixed to get a mixture costing ₹17 per kg.

    1. a. 2 : 1
    2. b. 2 : 3
    3. c. 3 : 1
    4. d. 1 : 1

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: By the rule of alligation: cheaper rice : dearer rice = (21 − 17) : (17 − 11) = 4 : 6 = 2 : 3.

  82. Question 82

    At the rate of 12.5% simple interest, in how much time will a sum become double?

    1. a. 20 years
    2. b. 10 years
    3. c. 12 years
    4. d. 8 years

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: For the sum to double, the simple interest earned equals the principal (P). Time = SI/(P×r/100) = P/(P×12.5/100) = 100/12.5 = 8 years.

  83. Question 83

    Indian Railways employed 200 workers to complete a certain work in 150 days. If only one-fourth of the work was done in 50 days, find the number of additional workers needed to complete the work on time.

    1. a. 300
    2. b. 200
    3. c. 100
    4. d. 600

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 200 workers completed 1/4 of the work in 50 days, so total work = 200×50÷(1/4) = 40,000 worker-days. Remaining work = 3/4, remaining time = 100 days. Worker-days needed = (3/4)×40,000 = 30,000. Workers required = 30,000÷100 = 300. Additional workers needed = 300 − 200 = 100.

  84. Question 84

    12 men and 18 women can complete a work in 10 days. 9 men and 18 women can complete the same work in 12 days. If 2 men and 3 women work together on the same work, in how many days can they complete it?

    1. a. 50 days
    2. b. 60 days
    3. c. 80 days
    4. d. 70 days

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Let a man's daily work rate be m and a woman's be w. From (12m+18w)×10=1 and (9m+18w)×12=1: 12m+18w=1/10 and 9m+18w=1/12. Subtracting: 3m = 1/10 − 1/12 = 1/60, so m = 1/180. Then 18w = 1/10 − 12/180 = 1/10 − 1/15 = 1/30, so w = 1/540. Combined rate (2m+3w) = 2/180 + 3/540 = 1/90 + 1/180 = 3/180 = 1/60, so the work is completed in 60 days.

  85. Question 85

    Two trains run in the same direction at speeds of 59 km/h and 32 km/h respectively, and the faster train crosses a person sitting in the slower train in 16 seconds. Find the length of the faster train.

    1. a. 124 m
    2. b. 123 m
    3. c. 170 m
    4. d. 120 m

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Relative speed = (59 − 32) km/h = 27×5/18 m/s = 7.5 m/s. Length of the faster train = relative speed × time = 7.5 × 16 = 120 metres.

  86. Question 86

    A 67-metre-long train crosses a 33-metre-long tunnel in 10 seconds. Find the time taken by the train to cross a person standing on a 65-metre-long platform.

    1. a. 5.5 seconds
    2. b. 4.5 seconds
    3. c. 6.7 seconds
    4. d. 8.8 seconds

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: While crossing the tunnel, distance covered = length of train + length of tunnel = 67+33 = 100 m in 10 s, so speed = 10 m/s. To cross a person (treated as a point), the train only needs to cover its own length — the platform's length is irrelevant here. Time = 67/10 = 6.7 seconds.

  87. Question 87

    Nikhil and Ritu's incomes are in the ratio 2:1. They spend in the ratio 5:3 and save in the ratio 4:1. If the combined monthly savings of both Nikhil and Ritu is ₹10,000, find the monthly income of each.

    1. a. ₹2,000, ₹1,000
    2. b. ₹8,000, ₹4,000
    3. c. ₹28,000, ₹14,000
    4. d. ₹10,000, ₹5,000

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Let Nikhil's income = 2x and Ritu's income = x. The savings ratio 4:1 with total savings ₹10,000 gives Nikhil's savings = ₹8,000 and Ritu's savings = ₹2,000. Expenditure = income − savings: Nikhil's expenditure = 2x−8000, Ritu's expenditure = x−2000. Using the expenditure ratio 5:3: (2x−8000)/(x−2000)=5/3 ⟹ 6x−24000=5x−10000 ⟹ x=14000. So Ritu's income = ₹14,000 and Nikhil's income = ₹28,000.

  88. Question 88

    In an examination, a student who scores 20% of the maximum marks fails by 5 marks. Another student who scores 30% of the maximum marks gets 20 marks more than the passing marks. What is the percentage required to pass?

    1. a. 22%
    2. b. 20%
    3. c. 42%
    4. d. 27%

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Let maximum marks = M and passing marks = P. Then 0.20M = P−5 and 0.30M = P+20. Solving: 0.30M − 0.20M = 25 ⟹ 0.10M = 25 ⟹ M = 250. P = 0.20×250+5 = 55. Passing percentage = 55/250×100 = 22%.

  89. Question 89

    The simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 5% is ₹1,600. Find the compound interest (compounded annually) at the same rate after 3 years.

    1. a. ₹2,555
    2. b. ₹2,355
    3. c. ₹2,520
    4. d. ₹2,522

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: SI = P×r×t/100 ⟹ 1600 = P×5×2/100 ⟹ P = ₹16,000. Amount after 3 years compounded annually: A = 16000×(1.05)³ = 16000×1.157625 = ₹18,522. Compound interest = A−P = 18522−16000 = ₹2,522.

  90. Question 90

    The simple interest on ₹73,000 from 12-02-2022 to 11-02-2023 at the rate of 15% per annum is:

    1. a. ₹13,450
    2. b. ₹14,750
    3. c. ₹12,050
    4. d. ₹10,950

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The period from 12-02-2022 to 11-02-2023 is exactly 1 year. SI = P×r×t/100 = 73000×15×1/100 = ₹10,950.

  91. Question 91

    A pair of shoes is marked at ₹475 with a 15% discount. How much is the discount?

    1. a. ₹71.25
    2. b. ₹75.25
    3. c. ₹70
    4. d. ₹72

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Discount = 15% of the marked price = 475×15/100 = ₹71.25.

  92. Question 92

    A shopkeeper gives a 10% discount on the marked price of an item but charges 8% sales tax on the discounted price. If the customer pays ₹34,020 including sales tax, find the marked price.

    1. a. ₹39,000
    2. b. ₹38,000
    3. c. ₹34,000
    4. d. ₹35,000

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Let the marked price be M. Price after discount = 0.90M. Price including tax = 0.90M×1.08 = 0.972M. Given 0.972M = 34,020 ⟹ M = 34020/0.972 = ₹35,000.

  93. Question 93

    If the average of x and 1/x (x≠0) is m, then the average of x² and 1/x² is:

    1. a. 2m² − 1
    2. b. 2m² + 1
    3. c. 1 − 3m²
    4. d. 1 − 2m

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: x+1/x = 2m. Squaring both sides: x²+1/x²+2 = 4m², so x²+1/x² = 4m²−2. Their average = (4m²−2)/2 = 2m²−1.

  94. Question 94

    If the average of 9 consecutive even numbers is 132, find the difference between the first and last numbers.

    1. a. 16
    2. b. 18
    3. c. 19
    4. d. 15

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The average of 9 consecutive even numbers equals the middle (5th) number, so the 5th number = 132. First number = 132−4×2 = 124, last number = 132+4×2 = 140. Difference = 140−124 = 16.

  95. Question 95

    Due to a 25% increase in the price per kg of rice, a person can buy 6 kg less rice in ₹1,200. What was the original price per kg of rice?

    1. a. ₹50
    2. b. ₹60
    3. c. ₹30
    4. d. ₹40

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Let the original price be p per kg. New price = 1.25p. Reduction in quantity: 1200/p − 1200/1.25p = 6. This gives 1200/p×(1−0.8)=6 ⟹ 1200×0.2/p=6 ⟹ 240/p=6 ⟹ p=₹40.

  96. Question 96

    If you have a regular icosahedron and you cut it with a plane that intersects six of its faces, what will be the shape of the resulting cross-section?

    1. a. Pentagon
    2. b. Trapezoid
    3. c. Hexagon
    4. d. Rectangle

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: When a plane cuts through a polyhedron, the cross-section boundary passes through every face the plane intersects, contributing exactly one edge per face crossed. Since the plane here intersects six faces, the cross-section has six edges — a hexagon.

  97. Question 97

    If the sum of three consecutive even numbers is 78, what is the second largest number?

    1. a. 26
    2. b. 28
    3. c. 24
    4. d. 30

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Let the three consecutive even numbers be n−2, n, n+2. Their sum = 3n = 78 ⟹ n=26. The numbers are 24, 26, 28. The second largest (middle) number = 26.

  98. Question 98

    A cylinder is intersected by a plane inclined at 45 degrees to its axis. What is the shape of the resulting cross-section?

    1. a. Ellipse
    2. b. Hyperbola
    3. c. Parabola
    4. d. Circle

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: When a plane cuts a cylinder at any oblique angle to its axis (neither perpendicular nor parallel), the cut stretches the circular cross-section into an ellipse — this holds for any inclination angle strictly between 0° and 90°; at exactly 90° the section is a circle instead.

  99. Question 99

    A person sold a horse at a 25% profit. If he had bought it for 35% less and sold it for ₹732 less, he would have made a 36% profit. What was the cost price of the horse?

    1. a. ₹1,500
    2. b. ₹1,800
    3. c. ₹2,800
    4. d. ₹2,000

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Let the cost price be x. Selling price = 1.25x. New cost price = 0.65x, new selling price = 1.25x−732. For a 36% profit: new selling price = 1.36×0.65x = 0.884x. So 1.25x−732 = 0.884x ⟹ 0.366x = 732 ⟹ x = ₹2,000.

  100. Question 100

    A bus covers a distance of 250 km at a speed of 50 km/h. How much time will it take to complete the journey?

    1. a. 4 hours
    2. b. 6 hours
    3. c. 5 hours
    4. d. 7 hours

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Time = Distance ÷ Speed = 250 ÷ 50 = 5 hours. So the bus takes 5 hours to cover the full 250 km journey.

  101. Question 101

    The average weight of A, B and C is 60 kg. If the average weight of A and B is 30 kg, and the average weight of B and C is 70 kg, what is B's weight?

    1. a. 21 kg
    2. b. 20 kg
    3. c. 17 kg
    4. d. 18 kg

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: A+B+C = 60×3 = 180. A+B = 30×2 = 60, so C = 180−60 = 120. B+C = 70×2 = 140, so B = 140−120 = 20 kg.

  102. Question 102

    The following pie charts show the distribution, across various institutes, of candidates enrolled for an exam and of candidates who passed the exam (out of those enrolled). What is the difference between the total number of candidates who PASSED from institutes S and P, and the total number of candidates ENROLLED from institutes T and R?Pie charts: institute-wise distribution of enrolled and passed candidates

    1. a. 400
    2. b. 440
    3. c. 300
    4. d. 399

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Passed from S = 16% of 5700 = 912; passed from P = 18% of 5700 = 1026; total = 1938. Enrolled from T = 8% of 8550 = 684; enrolled from R = 10% of 8550 = 855; total = 1539. Difference = 1938 − 1539 = 399.

  103. Question 103

    The given pie chart shows the various sources of funding (in ₹ crore) that the Public Works Department (PWD) plans to raise for its Phase-II projects. An outsourced agency must hand over ₹4910 crore to the project through toll collection, and is permitted a maximum commission of 20% (on top of this amount). What is the total amount the outsourced agency should be permitted to collect?Pie chart: PWD's Phase-II project funding sources (in ₹ crore)

    1. a. ₹4845 crore
    2. b. ₹5254 crore
    3. c. ₹5892 crore
    4. d. ₹5500 crore

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Total amount = amount handed to the project + maximum commission = 4910 + (20% of 4910) = 4910 × 1.20 = ₹5892 crore.

  104. Question 104

    If you initially face West and turn 270 degrees clockwise, which direction are you now facing?

    1. a. North-West
    2. b. South
    3. c. West
    4. d. East

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Starting at West (270°) and adding a 270° clockwise turn gives (270+270) mod 360 = 180°, which is South.

  105. Question 105

    A person walks 15 metres East, then turns left and walks 10 metres, then turns left again and walks 15 metres. How far is he from his starting point?

    1. a. 20 metres
    2. b. 18 metres
    3. c. 15 metres
    4. d. 10 metres

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: After walking 15 m East and turning left, he walks 10 m North; turning left again he walks 15 m West, which exactly cancels the earlier 15 m East displacement. Only the 10 m northward leg remains, so he ends up 10 metres from the start.

  106. Question 106

    Read the statements and choose the correct option regarding the conclusion. Statement 1: Trey plays table tennis. Statement 2: Table tennis is a difficult game. Conclusion: Trey plays a difficult game. From the above statements, we can conclude that:

    1. a. The given conclusion is probably false
    2. b. The given conclusion is definitely false
    3. c. The given conclusion is definitely true
    4. d. No conclusion can be drawn

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Taking both statements as true — Trey plays table tennis, and table tennis is a difficult game — it follows with logical certainty that Trey plays a difficult game, so the conclusion is definitely true.

  107. Question 107

    Which of the following shapes is different from the rest?

    1. a. Triangle
    2. b. Sphere
    3. c. Circle
    4. d. Square

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Triangle, Circle and Square are all flat 2D shapes, while a Sphere is a 3D solid — that makes the Sphere the odd one out.

  108. Question 108

    In a certain code language, if 'SCRABBLE' is coded as '19318122125', how will 'STUNNED' be coded in the same language?

    1. a. 192021141545
    2. b. 192022141454
    3. c. 192021141454
    4. d. 192020141545

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet (A=1...Z=26) and the numbers are concatenated with no separator — S(19)C(3)R(18)A(1)B(2)B(2)L(12)E(5) gives 19318122125, confirming the rule. Applying it to STUNNED: S(19)T(20)U(21)N(14)N(14)E(5)D(4) = 192021141454.

  109. Question 109

    Pointing to a woman, Nirmala said, 'She is the daughter of the only son of my sister's mother.' What is Nirmala's relation to that woman?

    1. a. Sister
    2. b. Cousin sister
    3. c. Paternal aunt
    4. d. Mother

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Nirmala's sister's mother is Nirmala's own mother. Her only son is therefore Nirmala's own brother, and that brother's daughter is the woman being pointed at — making her Nirmala's niece, and Nirmala her paternal aunt (bua).

  110. Question 110

    What comes next? P:Q::T:?

    1. a. R
    2. b. P
    3. c. T
    4. d. U

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: P moves one letter forward to Q, so applying the same one-letter-forward step to T gives U.

  111. Question 111

    Curtains are related to cloth in the same way that blinds are related to:

    1. a. Slats
    2. b. Lifters
    3. c. Cords
    4. d. Cover

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Curtains are made of cloth; in the same way blinds are made of slats (thin strips) — the relationship is material-to-object.

  112. Question 112

    Soap is related to cleanliness in the same way that perfume is related to:

    1. a. Neatness
    2. b. Fragrance
    3. c. Intelligence
    4. d. Freshness

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Soap's core function is cleanliness; similarly, perfume's core function is to give fragrance — the relationship is object-to-its-purpose.

  113. Question 113

    If you are facing South-West and turn 180 degrees to your right, which direction are you now facing?

    1. a. South-East
    2. b. North-East
    3. c. South-West
    4. d. North-West

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: A 180-degree turn, whether left or right, always ends up facing the exact opposite direction — the exact opposite of South-West is North-East.

  114. Question 114

    A survey of 140 students found that 60 students like video games, 70 like indoor games, and 75 like outdoor games. Additionally, 30 students like both indoor and outdoor games, 18 like both video and outdoor games, 42 like both video and indoor games, and 8 like all three types of games. Find the number of students who play only outdoor games.

    1. a. 57
    2. b. 32
    3. c. 35
    4. d. 64

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Students who play only outdoor games = total outdoor − (outdoor & indoor) − (outdoor & video) + (all three) = 75 − 30 − 18 + 8 = 35.

  115. Question 115

    Find the missing numbers (A, B) in the series and find the value of B+A. 25, 36, 49, A, 81, B, 121

    1. a. 146
    2. b. 125
    3. c. 152
    4. d. 164

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The series is the squares of consecutive integers from 5 to 11: 5²=25, 6²=36, 7²=49, 8²=64(A), 9²=81, 10²=100(B), 11²=121. So A+B = 64+100 = 164.

  116. Question 116

    Study the following sequence carefully and answer the question that follows it. RK59#B2%*E?A8L$I4SV7!C6N@H13D How many letters are there, each of which is immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a symbol?

    1. a. 2
    2. b. 3
    3. c. 0
    4. d. 1

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: In the sequence, only the letter 'E' has a symbol ('*') immediately before it and a symbol ('?') immediately after it — so exactly 1 letter satisfies the condition.

  117. Question 117

    Looking at the pattern in the given combinations, how will you express the combination represented by '?'? AZ3B, CY6D, EX9F, ?

    1. a. KX18L
    2. b. NZ210
    3. c. GW12H
    4. d. IV15J

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The first letter advances by 2 each time (A,C,E,G), the second letter goes back by 1 (Z,Y,X,W), the middle number increases by 3 (3,6,9,12), and the fourth letter advances by 2 (B,D,F,H) — giving the next combination GW12H.

  118. Question 118

    Looking at the pattern in the given numbers, how will you express the number represented by '?'? 1, 1, 9, 27, 25, 125, ?, 343

    1. a. 49
    2. b. 37
    3. c. 22
    4. d. 34

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The odd positions (1,3,5,7) hold squares of the odd numbers 1,3,5,7: 1,9,25,49; the even positions (2,4,6,8) hold their cubes: 1,27,125,343. So '?' = 7² = 49.

  119. Question 119

    In which of the following words are the letters arranged in English alphabetical order?

    1. a. Collops
    2. b. Envelops
    3. c. Bloops
    4. d. Adrops

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The letters of 'Bloops' — B, L, O, O, P, S — are in non-decreasing alphabetical order (B<L<O≤O<P<S); every other word breaks the order somewhere, e.g. 'Collops' has an L right after an O.

  120. Question 120

    Identify the wrong number in the following series. 4, 7, 13, 21, 34

    1. a. 13
    2. b. 34
    3. c. 7
    4. d. 21

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The differences should follow 3, 6, 9, 12, giving the correct series 4, 7, 13, 22, 34 — so 21 is the wrong number; it should have been 22.

  121. Question 121

    Choose the odd one out.

    1. a. KL
    2. b. QR
    3. c. AZ
    4. d. FG

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: In KL, QR and FG both letters are consecutive in the alphabet, but AZ pairs the first and last letters of the alphabet, which are not consecutive — making AZ the odd one out.

  122. Question 122

    Pointing to Anish, a woman said, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother.' How is the woman related to Anish?

    1. a. Sister
    2. b. Daughter
    3. c. Mother
    4. d. Grandmother

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: The only daughter of the woman's mother is the woman herself, so Anish's mother is the woman herself — meaning she is Anish's mother.

  123. Question 123

    Four people (1,2,3,4) each choose a different fruit — apple, banana, cherry and dates. The person who chooses apple is next to the person who chooses banana, but not next to the person who chooses dates. The person who chooses cherry is next to the person who chooses dates. The correct combination is:

    1. a. 1-Cherry, 2-Banana, 3-Dates, 4-Apple
    2. b. 1-Apple, 2-Banana, 3-Dates, 4-Cherry
    3. c. 1-Banana, 2-Apple, 3-Dates, 4-Cherry
    4. d. 1-Banana, 2-Cherry, 3-Dates, 4-Apple

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Only this combination satisfies both conditions: apple (position 1) is next to banana (position 2) but not next to dates (position 3), and cherry (position 4) is right next to dates (position 3).

  124. Question 124

    Find the pair of numbers that does not match the pattern of the others.

    1. a. 16, 25
    2. b. 49, 81
    3. c. 8, 27
    4. d. 4, 9

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: 16, 25, 49, 81, 4 and 9 are all perfect squares, while 8 and 27 are perfect cubes, not squares — making the pair 8, 27 the odd one out.

  125. Question 125

    Complete the analogy. Gloves : Hand :: Socks : ?

    1. a. Head
    2. b. Arm
    3. c. Feet
    4. d. Shoe

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Gloves are worn on the hand; similarly, socks are worn on the feet — the relationship is between an item and the body part it is worn on.

  126. Question 126

    Complete the analogy. Astronaut : Spacecraft :: Diver : ?

    1. a. Car
    2. b. Airplane
    3. c. Submarine
    4. d. Bicycle

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: An astronaut travels in a spacecraft; similarly, a diver travels underwater in a submarine — the relationship is between a person and their vehicle.

  127. Question 127

    If the code for CAT is DBU, what is the code for DOG?

    1. a. EPF
    2. b. EPH
    3. c. DRE
    4. d. EOF

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Each letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet: C→D, A→B, T→U. Applying the same rule to DOG: D→E, O→P, G→H, giving the code EPH.

  128. Question 128

    According to the code, digits 0,1,2,3,4 are represented by A, B, C, D, E respectively. Find the value of [(B+E)−(D+A)].

    1. a. 2
    2. b. 3
    3. c. 1
    4. d. -2

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Substituting A=0, B=1, C=2, D=3, E=4: (B+E)−(D+A) = (1+4)−(3+0) = 5−3 = 2.

  129. Question 129

    What will be the next number in the series? 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ......

    1. a. 2160
    2. b. 1820
    3. c. 2180
    4. d. 1260

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: Each number is obtained by multiplying the previous one by 2, then 3, then 4, then 5; the next multiplier is 6, so the next number is 360×6 = 2160.

  130. Question 130

    In a family of six members — A, B, C, D, E and F — there are two married couples. D is a teacher and E's father. F is E's grandmother and a housewife. C is a lawyer, married to A. B is not male. How is B related to E?

    1. a. Mother
    2. b. Aunt (maternal uncle's wife)
    3. c. Daughter-in-law
    4. d. Father

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The family has two married couples — C-A and D-B. D is E's father, and since B is not male, B must be D's wife, making B the mother of E. This also fits F being D's mother, hence E's grandmother, exactly as stated.

  131. Question 131

    If EXAMINATION is coded as VCZNRMZGRLM, how will WRITTEN be coded?

    1. a. DIPGGMN
    2. b. DIUGGMV
    3. c. IDGRGMV
    4. d. DIRGGVM

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: This code replaces each letter with its mirror letter in the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, and so on) — e.g. E↔V, X↔C. Applying the same rule to WRITTEN: W→D, R→I, I→R, T→G, T→G, E→V, N→M, giving DIRGGVM.

  132. Question 132

    In a class, Sambu ranks 10th from the top and 36th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class?

    1. a. 43
    2. b. 44
    3. c. 45
    4. d. 47

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Total students = rank from top + rank from bottom − 1 = 10 + 36 − 1 = 45.

  133. Question 133

    K is L's wife and M is L's sister. N is K's daughter, while O is M's mother. What is O's relation to K?

    1. a. Father
    2. b. Mother
    3. c. Mother-in-law
    4. d. Father-in-law

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Since M is L's sister, M and L share the same mother — meaning O is also L's mother. As K is L's wife, O is therefore K's mother-in-law.

  134. Question 134

    Find the next number in the series. 6, 24, 120, 720, ?

    1. a. 5400
    2. b. 5040
    3. c. 5440
    4. d. 5004

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: This is a series of consecutive factorials: 3!=6, 4!=24, 5!=120, 6!=720, so the next number is 7!=5040.

  135. Question 135

    Find the odd (mismatched) number in the given series: 486, 482, 478, 474, 472, 466, 462

    1. a. 474
    2. b. 472
    3. c. 478
    4. d. 466

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The series should decrease by 4 each time (486, 482, 478, 474, 470, 466, 462), but the given series has 472 in place of 470 — so 472 is the mismatched number.

  136. Question 136

    What is the missing number in the following sequence? 3, 18, 90, 360, 1080, 2160, .........., 0

    1. a. 360
    2. b. 0
    3. c. 2160
    4. d. 1080

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Each number is multiplied by 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0 in turn: 3×6=18, 18×5=90, 90×4=360, 360×3=1080, 1080×2=2160, 2160×1=2160, and finally 2160×0=0. So the missing number is 2160.

  137. Question 137

    Find the next number in the series. 11, 39, 75, 119, .....?

    1. a. 181
    2. b. 191
    3. c. 161
    4. d. 171

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The successive differences are 28, 36, 44, each increasing by 8. The next difference is 52, so the next number is 119+52 = 171.

  138. Question 138

    If INSECT is coded as JOTFDU and HOUSEFLY is coded as IPVTFGMZ, how will BUTTERFLY be coded?

    1. a. CVUUFSGMZ
    2. b. CVUUSGMZF
    3. c. BVUUGMSG
    4. d. GMGUUCVF

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: In both examples every letter is shifted one place forward in the alphabet (I→J, N→O, and so on). Applying the same +1 shift to each letter of BUTTERFLY: B→C, U→V, T→U, T→U, E→F, R→S, F→G, L→M, Y→Z, giving the code CVUUFSGMZ.

  139. Question 139

    If 95474 is written as KGFIF, how will 82143 be written?

    1. a. JDCEF
    2. b. JDCFE
    3. c. JCDFE
    4. d. JCDEF

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Each digit is mapped to the letter at position (digit+2) in the alphabet: 9→K, 5→G, 4→F, 7→I. Applying the same rule to 82143: 8→J, 2→D, 1→C, 4→F, 3→E, giving the code JDCFE.

  140. Question 140

    In a class of 40 students, 15 students play cricket and 15 students play tennis, and 5 students play both games. The number of students who play neither of the two games is:

    1. a. 25
    2. b. 35
    3. c. 15
    4. d. 10

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Students playing at least one game = 15+15−5 = 25. So students playing neither game = 40−25 = 15.

  141. Question 141

    Y is east of X, which is north of Z. If P is south of Z, in which direction is P from Y?

    1. a. North-East
    2. b. South-West
    3. c. North-West
    4. d. South-East

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Taking Z as the origin: X is north of Z, and Y is east of X, so Y lies to the north-east of Z. P is south of Z. Relative to Y, P is therefore both south and west — meaning P lies to the south-west of Y.

  142. Question 142

    Find the wrong number in the following series. 1, 12, 144, 1782, 20736

    1. a. 144
    2. b. 12
    3. c. 20736
    4. d. 1782

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: Each number should be the previous one multiplied by 12: 1×12=12, 12×12=144, 144×12=1728, 1728×12=20736 — the given series has 1782 instead of 1728, so 1782 is the wrong number.

  143. Question 143

    Introducing a boy, a girl said, 'He is the son of the daughter of my uncle's father.' What is the girl's relation to the boy?

    1. a. Sister
    2. b. Mother
    3. c. Father
    4. d. Brother

    Correct answer: A

    Explanation: The girl's uncle is her father's brother, so the uncle's father is the girl's own grandfather. The grandfather's daughter is the girl's father's sister — her paternal aunt — and the aunt's son is the girl's cousin, making the girl his (cousin) sister.

  144. Question 144

    If West is replaced by South-West, then North will be replaced by what?

    1. a. South
    2. b. South-West
    3. c. North-West
    4. d. North-East

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: West (270°) has been renamed South-West (225°), meaning every direction's name has been rotated by 45°. Applying the same rotation, North (0°) takes on the name that used to belong to the direction 45° away — North-West (315°).

  145. Question 145

    Find the number of cubes arranged in the given figure.Given figure: cubes arranged in a stepped structure

    1. a. 18
    2. b. 17
    3. c. 24
    4. d. 16

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: This is a stepped structure on a 3×3 base: the centre column has height 4, the four edge-adjacent columns each have height 3, and the four corner columns each have height 2. Total cubes = 4 + (4 × 3) + (4 × 2) = 4 + 12 + 8 = 24.

  146. Question 146

    Find the mirror image of the figure, if the mirror is placed along line XY (positioned vertically, to the right of the figure).Original figure, with the mirror placed along line XY

    1. a. Option 1Option 1
    2. b. Option 2Option 2
    3. c. Option 3Option 3
    4. d. Option 4Option 4

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: The mirror is a vertical line, so every point's height (y) stays the same in the reflection and only its left-right position (x) flips. In the original figure the large triangle sits left-of-centre with the dot to its right — in the true reflection this flips, so the dot moves to the left and the triangle to the right, and the small triangle also moves to the opposite side. Checking the exact coordinates confirms option 2 is the only one that reproduces this transformation correctly.

  147. Question 147

    Find the number of triangles in the figure.Given figure for counting triangles

    1. a. 9
    2. b. 8
    3. c. 12
    4. d. 16

    Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The figure is a square with both diagonals drawn, a smaller square inside it also with both diagonals drawn, and a larger square (drawn as a diamond) around the outside. Systematically enumerating every triangle formed by the line intersections (checking every combination of three lines) gives a total of 16 triangles.

  148. Question 148

    Find which of the following figures can be formed by assembling the pieces given in the first figure (X).First figure (X): pieces to be assembled

    1. a. Option 1Option 1
    2. b. Option 2Option 2
    3. c. Option 3Option 3
    4. d. Option 4Option 4

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Combining all four pieces produces a square divided into four equal quadrants, with both diagonals drawn within each quadrant — this dense subdivision matches exactly the figure shown in option 3, while the sub-triangle density of the other options doesn't match the total count of pieces.

  149. Question 149

    Study the given Venn diagram and answer the question. The circle represents employed people, the square represents people considered backward, and the triangle represents educated people. How many people considered backward are NOT educated?Venn diagram: relationship between employed, backward and educated people

    1. a. 31
    2. b. 22
    3. c. 20
    4. d. 16

    Correct answer: B

    Explanation: Total inside the square (backward) = 17 (square-only) + 5 (square∩circle, not triangle) + 11 (square∩triangle, not circle) + 3 (all three) = 36. Of these, educated (also inside the triangle) = 11 + 3 = 14. So backward but NOT educated = 36 − 14 = 22, i.e. 17 + 5.

  150. Question 150

    Which of the following diagrams/sets best represents the relationship between Women, Mothers and Parents?

    1. a. Option 1Option 1
    2. b. Option 2Option 2
    3. c. Option 3Option 3
    4. d. Option 4Option 4

    Correct answer: C

    Explanation: Every mother is also a woman, and every mother is also a parent — so 'Mothers' equals exactly the region where the 'Women' and 'Parents' circles overlap (not every woman is a mother, and not every parent is a mother, since fathers are parents too). This partially-overlapping two-circle arrangement is shown in option 3.

Full exam pattern

UP Police Constable has 150 questions worth 300 marks. The section-wise split is below.

SectionQuestionsMarks
General Knowledge3876
General Hindi3774
Numerical & Mental Ability3876
Mental Aptitude, IQ & Reasoning3774
Total150300

Paper verification: This paper is verified from candidate recall. UP Police Recruitment & Promotion Board (UPPRPB) does not release an official question paper, so this is not a copy of an official PDF — it is based on the collective recall of candidates who sat the exam.

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Frequently asked questions

Is this a real UP Police Constable question paper?

Yes, this is from the real UP Police Constable exam held on 23 August 2024, Shift 1. The commission doesn't release an official question paper, so this has been verified from candidate recall rather than copied from an official PDF.

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No, UP Police Constable has no negative marking, so neither does this paper.

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